Quizzes & Surveys

Welcome to your International Navodaya Chamber of Commerce (INCOC) Platform !

Subject: Taxation

Total Number of Question: 40

Time: 41 Minutes

Please check your email after completion of test for result.

All the best...

Name

Phone No

State

Which section of the Income Tax Act deals with set-off and carry forward of losses?

Section 70 to 74A

Section 80C

Section 44AB

Section 24

None

Loss from house property can be set off against:

Salary income only

Income from other heads except salary

Any head of income

None of the above

None

Loss under the head “Capital Gains” can be set off against:

Salary income

House property income

Capital gains only

Business income

None

The time limit for carrying forward unabsorbed depreciation is:

8 years

10 years

Indefinite

4 years

None

Loss from speculation business can be carried forward for a maximum period of:

4 years

8 years

6 years

10 years

None

Income of a minor child is included in the hands of:

The parent with higher income

The parent with lower income

The child himself

None of the above

None

Clubbing provisions for assets transferred to a spouse apply under which section?

Section 64(1)(iv)

Section 10(10D)

Section 80C

Section 24(b)

None

Which of the following incomes is not clubbed?

Income from assets transferred to a spouse without adequate consideration

Income of a minor child

Income of a major child

Income from assets transferred to daughter-in-law

None

Clubbing provisions do not apply to:

Salary income of a minor child

Income earned by a minor child using special talent

Income from assets transferred to spouse

Income of a wife from a business funded by the husband

None

If a husband transfers property to his wife for inadequate consideration, income from such property is taxable in the hands of:

Husband

Wife

Both equally

None of the above

None

TDS on salary is deducted under which section?

Section 192

Section 194C

Section 195

Section 194J

None

TDS on interest other than securities (bank deposits) is deducted under:

Section 194A

Section 194B

Section 195

Section 194C

None

The rate of TDS on winning from lotteries is:

10%

15%

20%

30%

None

TDS on commission or brokerage is deducted under:

Section 194A

Section 194H

Section 194C

Section 194J

None

TDS under Section 194C applies to payments made to:

Professionals

Contractors

Rent

Salaries

None

Advance tax is payable if the total tax liability exceeds:

₹5,000

₹10,000

₹50,000

₹1,00,000

None

Which of the following assesses is not liable to pay advance tax?

Salaried individual with no other income

Professional with annual income above ₹10 lakh

Company with taxable income

Individual with income from house property and interest

None

Advance tax for corporate assesses is payable in how many installments?

None

The due date for the last installment of advance tax is:

15th March

31st March

15th February

30th June

None

Interest for non-payment of advance tax is levied under which section?

Section 234A

Section 234B

Section 234C

Both b) and c)

None

Assessment under Section 143(1) is known as:

Best judgment assessment

Summary assessment

Regular assessment

Scrutiny assessment

None

The time limit for filing a revised return is:

3 months from the end of the relevant financial year

Before the end of the relevant assessment year

12 months from the end of the relevant assessment year

Before the assessment is completed

None

Which form is used for filing an appeal with the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT)?

Form 35

Form 36

Form 26AS

Form 49A

None

The time limit for completion of scrutiny assessment under Section 143(3) is:

6 months from the end of the financial year

12 months from the end of the relevant assessment year

18 months from the end of the financial year

36 months from the end of the financial year

None

An income tax officer has the power to reopen assessments under Section:

147

143

234

192

None

Under the new tax regime, the rebate under Section 87A is available for taxable income up to:

₹3,00,000

₹5,00,000

₹7,00,000

₹10,00,000

None

E-Verification of income tax returns is done using:

Digital Signature Certificate (DSC)

Aadhaar OTP

Net banking EVC

All of the above

None

Penalty for failure to file income tax return on time is levied under:

Section 234F

Section 234B

Section 271A

Section 234C

None

Which form is used for filing an income tax return for individuals with no business income?

ITR-1

ITR-2

ITR-3

ITR-4

None

Income tax in India is administered by:

Reserve Bank of India

Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT)

Ministry of Corporate Affairs

Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)

None

An individual is said to be a resident in India if he stays in India for:

60 days or more in a financial year

182 days or more in a financial year

120 days or more in a financial year

240 days or more in a financial year

None

The income of a non-resident is taxable in India if:

It is accrued or deemed to accrue in India

It is earned and received outside India

It is only received in India

None of the above

None

A person is deemed to be "not ordinarily resident" if he has been a non-resident in India in:

2 out of the last 10 years

4 out of the last 10 years

5 out of the last 7 years

7 out of the last 10 years

None

Which of the following incomes is exempt for a non-resident?

Dividend from an Indian company

Interest on NRE account

Rent from property in India

Income from consultancy services in India

None

Income from salary earned by a resident outside India is:

Taxable in India

Exempt in India

Partially taxable

None of the above

None

Minimizing tax liability through legitimate methods is called:

Tax evasion

Tax avoidance

Tax planning

None of the above

None

The use of loopholes in tax laws to reduce liability is termed as:

Tax evasion

Tax avoidance

Tax planning

Tax exemption

None

Which of the following is an example of tax evasion?

Under-reporting income

Investing in tax-saving schemes

Claiming deduction under Section 80C

Filing a revised return

None

Which principle is violated in the case of tax evasion?

Lawfulness

Equity

Voluntary compliance

All of the above

None

Tax planning is considered effective when it is:

Legal and aligns with tax laws

Secretive and manipulative

Based on false declarations

Aimed at avoiding all taxes

None

1 out of 4

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Welcome to your International Navodaya Chamber of Commerce (INCOC) Platform !

Subject: Taxation

Total Number of Question: 40

Time: 41 Minutes

Please check your email after completion of test for result.

All the best...

Name

Phone No

State

What is the basic exemption limit for an individual below 60 years of age in AY 2023-24?

₹2,00,000

₹2,50,000

₹3,00,000

₹5,00,000

None

Income Tax in India is levied under which act?

GST Act, 2017

Companies Act, 2013

Income Tax Act, 1961

Wealth Tax Act, 1957

None

Which of the following is not a valid assessment year in India?

AY 2023-24

AY 2022-23

AY 2024-25

AY 2025-27

None

Which income is exempt under Section 10?

Salary

Agriculture income

Interest income

None of the above

None

Which of the following is a previous year for income earned on 10th November 2023?

AY 2022-23

AY 2023-24

AY 2024-25

AY 2025-26

None

A resident individual is considered ‘ordinarily resident’ if they satisfy how many conditions in addition to basic residency criteria?

None

For an individual, how many days of stay in India are required to be treated as a resident in a financial year?

60 days

120 days

182 days

240 days

None

Which income of a non-resident is taxable in India?

Income earned in India

Income earned outside India

All global income

None of the above

None

An individual who is an Indian citizen, leaving India for employment abroad, needs to stay in India for how many days to be considered a resident?

60 days

182 days

120 days

365 days

None

Which section defines residential status for tax purposes?

Section 2(1)

Section 6

Section 10

Section 7

None

Which of the following is a taxable perquisite?

Medical reimbursement up to ₹5,000

Rent-free accommodation

Uniform allowance

Leave travel concession

None

Gratuity received by a government employee is taxable under which section?

Section 10(10)

Section 10(13)

Section 17(1)

Section 10(10A)

None

Standard deduction for salaried individuals for AY 2023-24 is:

₹40,000

₹50,000

₹75,000

₹1,00,000

None

Leave encashment for a private-sector employee is exempt to the extent of:

₹1,00,000

₹2,50,000

₹3,00,000

₹10,00,000

None

Which of the following is not a fully exempt allowance?

HRA

Travelling allowance

Uniform allowance

Academic allowance

None

The maximum deduction under Section 24(b) for self-occupied property is:

₹1,50,000

₹2,00,000

₹2,50,000

₹3,00,000

None

Unrealized rent recovered in subsequent years is taxable under:

Income from Salary

Income from House Property

Income from Other Sources

Capital Gains

None

The gross annual value of a property is determined based on:

Municipal value

Fair rent

Standard rent

Higher of municipal value or fair rent, subject to standard rent

None

Which of the following is not deductible under Section 24?

Municipal taxes paid

Standard deduction of 30%

Interest on loan

Principal repayment of loan

None

Vacancy loss can be claimed as a deduction if:

It is a self-occupied property

It is rented but remains vacant

Property is deemed to be let out

None of the above

None

Which section allows deduction for depreciation?

Section 32

Section 37

Section 80C

Section 36

None

Which of the following expenses is not allowed as a deduction under the head "Profits and Gains of Business or Profession"?

Salary to employees

Interest on loan for business purposes

Penalty for breach of law

Rent paid for business premises

None

For tax audit under Section 44AB, the turnover threshold for businesses opting for the presumptive taxation scheme is:

₹2 crore

₹5 crore

₹10 crore

₹50 lakh

None

Presumptive income under Section 44AD is calculated as:

5% of gross receipts

6% of gross receipts (if received digitally)

8% of gross receipts

Both b) and c) depending on mode of receipt

None

Which of the following is a capital expenditure?

Repairs to machinery

Purchase of new machinery

Salaries to staff

Interest on loan

None

The holding period to classify listed shares as long-term capital assets is:

12 months

24 months

36 months

6 months

None

Cost Inflation Index is notified by:

Reserve Bank of India

Income Tax Department

Ministry of Finance

Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT)

None

Which section allows exemption on long-term capital gains if invested in specified bonds?

Section 54

Section 54EC

Section 54F

Section 80C

None

Under Section 54, exemption on long-term capital gains from the sale of a residential house is available if:

The amount is reinvested in a residential property

The amount is reinvested in agricultural land

The amount is deposited in a savings account

None of the above

None

Gains from the sale of a personal car are:

Taxable as capital gains

Exempt from tax

Taxable as income from other sources

Taxable as business income

None

Dividend income from an Indian company is taxable in the hands of:

Company

Shareholder

Both company and shareholder

None of the above

None

Interest on savings account is exempt up to ₹10,000 under:

Section 80C

Section 80TTA

Section 80D

Section 10(10D)

None

Gifts received in cash exceeding ₹50,000 in a year are taxable under the head:

Income from Salary

Income from Other Sources

Capital Gains

None of the above

None

Family pension received by the legal heirs is taxable under:

Income from Salary

Income from Other Sources

Income from House Property

Capital Gains

None

Income from lotteries is taxed at a flat rate of:

10%

20%

30%

40%

None

Deduction under Section 80C is available for:

Medical insurance premiums

Life insurance premiums

Education loan repayment

None of the above

None

Maximum deduction allowed under Section 80D for medical insurance premiums paid for senior citizens is:

₹25,000

₹50,000

₹75,000

₹1,00,000

None

Which section provides a deduction for donations to specified funds?

Section 80G

Section 80C

Section 80E

Section 80D

None

Interest on an education loan is eligible for deduction under which section?

Section 80C

Section 80E

Section 80G

Section 80TTA

None

The new tax regime under Section 115BAC does not allow deductions under:

Section 80C

Section 80D

Section 80G

All of the above

None

1 out of 4

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Welcome to your International Navodaya Chamber of Commerce (INCOC) Platform !

Subject: Internal audit and Internal control

Total Number of Question: 40

Time: 41 Minutes

Please check your email after completion of test for result.

All the best...

Name

Phone No

State

Which of the following is NOT a key objective of internal audit?

Evaluating the effectiveness of risk management processes

Detecting all instances of fraud in the organization

Assessing the efficiency of operational controls

Ensuring compliance with laws and regulations

None

In the COSO framework, which component ensures that internal controls are functioning as intended?

Control Environment

Monitoring Activities

Information and Communication

None

Which of the following would BEST describe a preventive control?

Reconciling bank statements monthly

Encrypting sensitive data in transit

Reviewing exception reports after transactions

Conducting internal audit reviews periodically

None

An auditor finds that an employee can initiate, approve, and record transactions. This violates the principle of:

Materiality

Segregation of Duties

Reasonable Assurance

Due Diligence

None

What is the primary purpose of internal control?

To ensure profitability

To prevent all errors

To provide reasonable assurance regarding achievement of objectives

To eliminate fraud

None

Which of the following is an example of a detective control?

Pre-approval of purchases

Alarm systems

Exception reporting and analysis

Dual signatures on checks

None

The "Three Lines of Defense" model in risk management includes all EXCEPT:

Risk owners and managers

External auditors

Internal auditors

Compliance and risk management functions

None

Which of the following is NOT a common limitation of internal control?

Human judgment errors

Management override

Segregation of duties

Collusion among employees

None

Inherent risk is defined as the:

Risk that exists after internal controls are applied

Risk of material misstatement in financial statements without considering controls

Risk that internal controls may fail to prevent or detect errors

Risk that an auditor may issue an inappropriate opinion

None

10.

Which type of audit provides assurance that resources are being used efficiently?

Financial Audit

Operational Audit

Compliance Audit

Forensic Audit

None

11.

Which of the following roles is NOT typically performed by internal auditors?

Designing internal controls

Evaluating internal controls

Assessing compliance with regulations

Conducting fraud investigations

None

12.

What is the primary objective of a compliance audit?

Detect fraud

Review internal controls

Verify compliance with external laws and regulations

Improve operational efficiency

None

13.

Which element of the COSO framework relates to the organization’s tone at the top?

Control Activities

Risk Assessment

Control Environment

Information and Communication

None

14.

A well-designed internal control system should:

Ensure zero financial loss

Provide absolute assurance against risks

Adapt to changes in the business environment

Guarantee error-free operations

None

15.

Which of the following tools would be MOST helpful in performing continuous auditing?

Checklists

Automated data analytics software

Risk and control self-assessment templates

Standardized audit programs

None

16.

What is the primary focus of an internal audit plan?

Mitigating external risks

Providing assurance on key risk areas

Reviewing financial statements

Ensuring compliance with tax laws

None

17.

In a risk-based internal audit approach, what is the FIRST step?

Identifying high-risk areas

Testing internal controls

Reporting audit findings

Reviewing prior audit reports

None

18.

The concept of "reasonable assurance" acknowledges that internal control systems:

Guarantee fraud prevention

Are infallible

Provide a balance between costs and benefits

Eliminate all risks

None

19.

Which of the following is NOT an element of risk assessment?

Identifying risks

Assessing the likelihood and impact of risks

Implementing corrective actions

Prioritizing risks based on severity

None

20.

An audit engagement letter typically excludes which of the following?

Scope of the audit

Auditor’s responsibilities

Expected audit findings

Audit objectives

None

21.

Which of the following is an example of a control weakness?

Quarterly reconciliation of accounts

Automated data backups

Single approval required for all large transactions

Access control through passwords

None

22.

What is the primary purpose of an audit follow-up?

To determine whether the audit fee was justified

To ensure that management has addressed audit findings

To identify new audit risks

To re-perform audit procedures

None

23.

Key performance indicators (KPIs) in internal audit focus on:

External compliance

Audit efficiency and effectiveness

Organizational profitability

Management override of controls

None

24.

Which type of fraud is internal audit least likely to detect?

Asset misappropriation

Bribery and corruption

Financial statement fraud

Cash theft

None

25.

Which of the following best describes management override?

Collusion between employees

Management bypassing existing internal controls

Errors due to lack of training

Weaknesses in operational policies

None

26.

Control activities are MOST closely related to:

Risk identification

Risk mitigation

Risk monitoring

Risk acceptance

None

27.

In continuous auditing, which data attribute is most critical for real-time monitoring?

Completeness

Timeliness

Relevance

Accuracy

None

28.

Which of the following tools is commonly used for risk assessment in internal auditing?

Heat maps

Trial balances

Timesheets

Project charters

None

29.

An effective whistleblowing mechanism should:

Be limited to senior management

Encourage anonymous reporting

Require immediate public disclosure

Operate only during working hour

None

30.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an effective internal audit function?

Independence

Objectivity

Accountability to the CEO only

Proficiency

None

31.

A walkthrough of internal controls involves:

Testing all controls in place

Interviewing employees and observing processes

Creating flowcharts for each process

Documenting high-level management reviews

None

32.

An auditor finds that employee passwords are shared in a shared file. This is a failure of which control type?

Physical controls

Detective controls

Preventive controls

Compensating controls

None

33.

Which of the following is a red flag indicating potential fraud?

High employee turnover

Well-documented policies

Frequent management reviews

Minimal overtime approvals

None

34.

Internal audit reports should primarily be addressed to:

Shareholders

Regulatory authorities

Audit committee and senior management

External auditors

None

35.

A key risk of using manual controls is:

Automation bias

Consistency

Human error

Over-reliance on technology

None

36.

In the COSO framework, information and communication ensure that:

External stakeholders receive confidential data

Internal and external reporting objectives are achieved

Controls are strictly preventive

IT systems replace all manual processes

None

37.

Which of the following is NOT a control objective?

Reliability of financial reporting

Achievement of strategic goals

Compliance with applicable laws

Safeguarding of assets

None

38.

An audit trail is an example of which type of control?

Preventive

Detective

Corrective

Directive

None

39.

Which audit technique is BEST for assessing the adequacy of internal controls?

Statistical sampling

Interviews with stakeholders

Walkthroughs and control testing

Review of historical financial performance

None

40.

What is the first step in developing a risk-based internal audit plan?

Conducting risk assessment interviews

Identifying key controls in all processes

Defining audit resources and timelines

Understanding organizational objectives and risks

None

1 out of 4

May the best brain win! Let the games begin! May knowledge be your guide, and may your answers be swift and precise.

Embrace the challenge, unleash your potential, and may the thrill of the competition ignite your passion for learning.

Good luck to you!

CMA Madhuri Kashayp

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Welcome to your International Navodaya Chamber of Commerce (INCOC) Platform !

Subject: Business Economics

Total Number of Question: 40

Time: 41 Minutes

Please check your email after completion of test for result.

All the best...

Name

Phone No

State

The short-run production function is characterized by:

At least one fixed input

All inputs variable

Diminishing marginal utility

Increasing returns to scale

None

Variable costs vary with:

Time

Level of output

Fixed costs

Number of workers

None

The marginal product curve intersects the average product curve at:

Its maximum

Its minimum

The origin

The point of inflection

None

Economies of scale result in:

Increasing average costs

Decreasing average costs

Constant marginal costs

Decreasing total costs

None

Diseconomies of scale occur when:

Marginal costs decrease

Average costs increase with output

Average costs remain constant

Total costs decrease with output

None

In the short run, a perfectly competitive firm will shut down if:

Price is below average total cost

Price is below average variable cost

Marginal cost is above average cost

Marginal revenue equals marginal cost

None

In monopolistic competition, firms in the long run make:

Normal profits

Supernormal profits

Losses

Zero marginal revenue

None

Under oligopoly, the kinked demand curve assumes:

Price increases are matched but not price cuts

Price decreases are matched but not price increases

Prices are rigid

Demand is perfectly elastic

None

The price-output equilibrium under perfect competition occurs at:

MC = AR

. MC = MR

AR = AC

MR = AC

None

10.

Price rigidity is a feature of:

Perfect competition

Monopolistic competition

Monopoly

Oligopoly

None

11.

Which method is NOT used to measure national income?

Expenditure method

Income method

Output method

Interest method

None

12.

The sum of value-added at all stages of production in an economy equals:

GNP

NNP

GDP

NDP

None

13.

Transfer payments are included in:

Personal income

National income

Net domestic product

Gross domestic product

None

14.

The unemployment rate is calculated as:

(Unemployed / Labor force) × 100

(Labor force / Population) × 100

(Population / Labor force) × 100

(Employed / Labor force) × 100

None

15.

Inflation reduces the value of:

Real income

Nominal income

Money supply

Investments

None

16.

The Five-Year Plan model in India was inspired by:

USA

USSR

Japan

China

None

17.

The Planning Commission was replaced by:

NITI Aayog

Economic Advisory Council

Finance Commission d

RBI

None

18.

The largest employment provider in India is:

Agriculture

Industry

Services

Construction

None

19.

Goods and Services Tax (GST) is an example of:

Direct tax

Indirect tax

Corporate tax

Wealth tax

None

20.

Make in India initiative focuses on:

Import substitution

Manufacturing sector growth

Agricultural reforms

Skill development

None

21.

The primary objective of monetary policy is to control:

Employment

Inflation

Population growth

Government spending

None

22.

Repo rate is the rate at which:

Commercial banks lend to RBI

RBI lends to commercial banks

Banks lend to customers

Customers deposit money in banks

None

23.

Which of the following is NOT a qualitative instrument of monetary policy?

Credit rationing

Open market operations

Margin requirements

Moral suasion

None

24.

Currency devaluation leads to:

Increase in exports

. Decrease in exports

No impact on trade

Decrease in foreign investment

None

25.

Fiat money is: a.

Backed by gold reserves

Issued by private institutions

Based on trust in the issuing authority

Commodity money

None

26.

The HDI measures development using:

GDP per capita, literacy, and life expectancy

Trade balance, education, and income

Savings rate, health, and employment

Economic growth and population

None

27.

Fiscal policy primarily deals with:

Interest rates

Government spending and taxation

Money supply

Trade regulations

None

28.

A fixed exchange rate system is one where:

Exchange rates fluctuate freely

Exchange rates are determined by the government

Exchange rates are determined by market forces

There is no trade deficit

None

29.

Terms of trade refers to:

The ratio of export prices to import prices

Trade volume between two countries

Government trade policies

Balance of payments

None

30.

Which of the following is NOT a renewable resource?

Solar energy

Wind energy

Coal

Hydropower

None

31.

The substitution effect of a price change implies that:

Consumers substitute cheaper goods for costlier ones

Consumers buy more of a good when its price rises

Consumers reduce the total expenditure on all goods

Consumers substitute income for goods

None

32.

A product with perfectly inelastic demand will have an elasticity value of:

Zero

Infinity

One

Greater than one

None

33.

Under monopoly, the gap between average revenue and marginal revenue is:

Constant

Increasing with output

Decreasing with output

Equal to marginal cost

None

34.

Price discrimination is possible only when:

There are multiple sellers

Buyers have identical elasticity of demand

The seller has market power

Costs of production are zero

None

35.

When average cost decreases as output increases, it is known as:

Economies of scale

Diseconomies of scale

Constant returns to scale

Marginal cost reduction

None

36.

In the short run, increasing returns to a factor occurs because:

Fixed inputs are used more efficiently

Variable inputs decrease

Marginal cost increases

Total fixed cost increases

None

37.

The Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana aims to:

Improve agricultural productivity

Provide universal access to banking facilities

Increase manufacturing sector output

Promote higher education

None

38.

The balance of payments includes:

Only visible trade

Only imports and exports

Current account and capital account transactions

Only trade deficits

None

39.

Which of the following is a liability for a commercial bank?

Loans and advances

Investments

Deposits of customers

Cash reserves

None

40.

Inflation caused by an increase in aggregate demand is called:

Cost-push inflation

Demand-pull inflation

Stagflation

Hyperinflation

None

1 out of 4

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Welcome to your International Navodaya Chamber of Commerce (INCOC) Platform !

Subject: Business Economics

Total Number of Question: 40

Time: 41 Minutes

Please check your email after completion of test for result.

All the best...

Name

Phone No

State

Demand for a product will be more elastic if

The product has fewer substitutes

The product has more substitutes

It is a luxury

None

When the price of a product increases, its quantity supplied:

Decreases

Increases

Remains constant

Becomes zero

None

Which of the following is NOT a determinant of demand?

Price of the commodity

Income of the consumer

Cost of production

Prices of related goods

None

The elasticity of supply of a fixed resource, such as land, is:

Zero

Infinite

Greater than one

Less than one

None

Consumer surplus is the difference between:

Total utility and marginal utility

Price paid and price consumers are willing to pay

Total revenue and total cost

Total demand and total supply

None

Which is NOT a characteristic of perfect competition?

Large number of buyers and sellers

Free entry and exit of firms

Price discrimination

None

In monopolistic competition, firms compete on:

Price only

Product differentiation

Advertising expenditure only

None

Collusive oligopoly is characterized by:

Firms competing fiercely

Firms entering into agreements to fix prices

Perfect competition among firms

Complete government regulation

None

A monopolist’s marginal revenue is:

Equal to price

Less than price

More than price

Equal to total revenue

None

10.

Under perfect competition, the supply curve of a firm is the:

Marginal cost curve above average total cost

Marginal cost curve above average variable cost

Total cost curve

Fixed cost curve

None

11.

The Law of Variable Proportions is also known as:

Law of Increasing Returns

Law of Diminishing Marginal Returns

Law of Constant Returns

Law of Equi-Marginal Returns

None

12.

Which of the following costs remains constant regardless of output?

Total cost

Average cost

Fixed cost

Marginal cost

None

13.

When total cost is divided by total output, we get:

Average cost

Marginal cost

Fixed cost

Variable cost

None

14.

The relationship between inputs and outputs is expressed through the:

Production function

Cost curve

Demand function

Revenue function

None

15.

Which of the following is NOT a type of cost?

Explicit cost

Opportunity cost

Imputed cost

Trade surplus

None

16.

Net National Product (NNP) is calculated as:

GNP - Depreciation

GDP + Depreciation

GNP + Indirect Taxes

GDP - Indirect Taxes

None

17.

Real GDP is:

GDP adjusted for inflation

GDP at current prices

GDP including transfer payments

. GDP minus indirect taxes

None

18.

Which of the following is NOT a component of Gross Domestic Product (GDP)?

Private consumption

Transfer payments

Net exports

Investment

None

19.

Disposable income is defined as:

Total income before taxes

Income available after paying taxes

Total national income

Income earned from abroad

None

20.

Which of the following measures the economic welfare of a country?

National income

Human Development Index (HDI)

Balance of payments

Budget deficit

None

21.

The New Economic Policy of 1991 emphasized:

Self-reliance

Import substitution

Liberalization, privatization, and globalization

Protectionism

None

22.

The Minimum Support Price (MSP) is declared for:

Industrial goods

Agricultural products

Consumer durables

All commodities

None

23.

The largest contributor to India’s GDP is:

Agriculture

Industry

Services

Construction

None

24.

The term “demographic dividend” refers to:

Benefits of an aging population

Economic benefits arising from a young and working-age population

Increase in population growth

Decline in fertility rates

None

25.

India’s largest export partner is:

USA

UAE

China

Germany

None

26.

Which bank in India is known as the “banker’s bank”?

SBI

RBI

NABARD

ICICI Bank

None

27.

Open market operations refer to:

Lending by commercial banks

Buying and selling of government securities by the central bank

Government trade policies

Foreign exchange transactions

None

28.

Inflation reduces:

Purchasing power of money

Supply of money

Prices of goods

Demand for goods

None

29.

Which of the following instruments is used in monetary policy?

Fiscal deficit

Repo rate

Public debt

Subsidies

None

30.

Commercial banks create money by:

Printing currency

Advancing loans

Issuing government securities

Collecting taxes

None

31.

Which is NOT a macroeconomic objective?

Price stability

Full employment

Profit maximization

Economic growth

None

32.

Trade surplus occurs when:

Exports exceed imports

Imports exceed exports

Exports equal imports

There is no trade

None

33.

Capital intensive industries rely heavily on:

Human labor

Machinery and technology

Raw materials

Natural resources

None

34.

Which organization calculates India’s Consumer Price Index (CPI)?

Reserve Bank of India

Central Statistical Office

Ministry of Finance

SEBI

None

35.

Human capital refers to:

Investment in machinery

Education, skills, and health of people

Physical capital in industries

Capital earned from trade

None

36.

If the income elasticity of demand for a product is positive, the product is:

A normal good

An inferior good

A Giffen good

A substitute good

None

37.

A decrease in the price of a complementary good will:

Increase demand for the related good

Decrease demand for the related good

Have no effect on demand

Reduce the supply of the related good

None

38.

The Law of Demand states that, ceteris paribus:

Price and quantity demanded are inversely related

Price and quantity demanded are directly related

Income and quantity demanded are inversely related

Price and income are directly related

None

39.

Consumer equilibrium is achieved when:

Marginal utility of all goods is equal

Total utility is maximized

Marginal utility per rupee spent on each good is equal

Expenditure is minimized

None

40.

Engel’s law relates to:

Income elasticity of demand for inferior goods

Expenditure on food items as income increases

Substitution between goods

Marginal utility of money

None

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Subject: Business Economics

Total Number of Question: 40

Time: 41 Minutes

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Name

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State

Indifference curves are:

Downward sloping and convex to the origin

Upward sloping and concave to the origin

Parallel straight lines

L-shaped

None

The demand for a commodity is perfectly inelastic when the demand curve is:

Horizontal

Vertical

Upward sloping

Downward sloping

None

Giffen goods violate the:

Law of supply

Law of demand

Law of diminishing returns

Law of marginal utility

None

The cross-price elasticity of complementary goods is:

Positive

Negative

Zero

Infinite

None

A leftward shift in the demand curve indicates:

Increase in demand

Decrease in demand

Increase in price

Decrease in price

None

The elasticity of supply is zero when:

The supply curve is vertical

The supply curve is horizontal

The supply curve is upward sloping

The supply curve is downward sloping

None

Returns to scale occur in the:

Short run

Long run

Medium run

Any time period

None

When marginal cost is less than average cost:

Average cost is rising

Average cost is falling

Average cost is constant

Marginal cost equals average cost

None

Which cost curve is U-shaped?

Fixed cost

Marginal cost

Total cost

Average fixed cost

None

10.

In the short run, when total product is maximum:

Marginal product is zero

Marginal product is maximum

Marginal product is negative

Marginal product equals average product

None

11.

The main characteristic of monopolistic competition is:

Homogeneous products

Price rigidity

Product differentiation

Single seller

None

12.

In a monopoly, the price charged is:

Equal to marginal cost

Greater than marginal cost

Less than marginal cost

Equal to marginal revenue

None

13.

In oligopoly, firms:

Act independently of each other

Are highly interdependent in decision-making

Face no competition

Produce identical goods only

None

14.

Price discrimination is possible only when:

There is perfect competition

The seller has monopoly power

The demand curve is horizontal

Costs are constant

None

15.

Under perfect competition, firms earn:

Normal profits in the long run

Supernormal profits in the long run

Losses in the long run

Supernormal profits in the short run and long run

None

16.

The difference between GNP and GDP is:

Net exports

Depreciation

Net factor income from abroad

Indirect taxes

None

17.

Personal income excludes:

Salaries and wages

Transfer payments

Undistributed corporate profits

Rent and interest

None

18.

Which of the following is NOT included in GDP calculations?

Consumer spending

Business investment

Government spending

Transfer payments

None

19.

Depreciation is also known as:

Gross profit

Net profit

Capital consumption allowance

Operating surplus

None

20.

The primary sector of the economy includes:

Manufacturing

Agriculture and mining

Banking and finance

Trade and commerce

None

21.

The primary objective of the Green Revolution was:

Industrial expansion

Increase in agricultural production

Reduction in population growth

Urbanization

None

22.

The largest source of revenue for the Indian government is:

Income tax

Corporate tax

GST

Customs duty

None

23.

Privatization in India refers to:

Reducing government control in public enterprises

Increasing public sector investment

Restricting foreign investment

Promoting import substitution

None

24.

Which organization publishes the Human Development Report?

World Bank

IMF

UNDP

WTO

None

25.

Liquidity refers to:

The ease with which an asset can be converted into cash

The profitability of a business

The level of cash reserves in a bank

The stability of currency

None

26.

The CRR (Cash Reserve Ratio) is maintained by:

Commercial banks

The Reserve Bank of India

The government

Non-banking financial institutions

None

27.

Inflation caused by increased production costs is known as:

Demand-pull inflation

Stagflation

Cost-push inflation

Hyperinflation d. Stagflation

None

28.

When inflation is very high and uncontrollable, it is termed as:

Stagflation

Deflation

Hyperinflation

Disinflation

None

29.

Devaluation of a currency is aimed at:

Increasing imports

Reducing exports

Promoting exports

Increasing domestic consumption

None

30.

A quota in international trade refers to:

A tax on imports

A restriction on the quantity of goods imported

A subsidy on exports

Free trade agreements

None

31.

Dumping refers to:

Selling goods below production cost in a foreign market

Importing goods at high prices

Exporting goods at premium prices

Restricting trade with specific countries

None

32.

Which of the following is NOT a trade barrier?

Tariff

Quota

Embargo

Free trade agreement

None

33.

Which is the apex institution of India’s financial sector?

SEBI

RBI

IRDAI

NABARD

None

34.

Who is known as the “Father of Economics”?

Karl Marx

John Maynard Keynes

Adam Smith

None

35.

Economic liberalization in India began in:

1980

1991

2000

1975

None

36.

The base year for GDP calculation in India is currently:

2004-05

2011-12

2015-16

2019-20

None

37.

India’s largest trading partner is:

USA

China

UAE

European Union

None

38.

Which is NOT a factor of production?

Land

Labor

Technology

Capital

None

39.

The Phillips curve shows the relationship between:

Inflation and unemployment

Interest rates and money supply

Demand and supply

GDP and fiscal deficit

None

40.

Which tax is considered regressive?

Income tax

Corporate tax

Sales tax

Wealth tax

None

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Subject: Business Economics

Total Number of Question: 40

Time: 41 Minutes

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Name

Phone No

State

Business economics is also known as

Macroeconomics

Managerial Economics

Microeconomics

Corporate Finance

None

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of business economics?

It is prescriptive

It focuses on managerial decision-making

It deals with long-term planning

It emphasizes purely theoretical analysis

None

The Law of Demand states that, other things remaining constant:

Demand rises as price rises

Demand falls as price rises

Demand remains constant irrespective of price

Demand fluctuates randomly with price

None

Price elasticity of demand measures:

The slope of the demand curve

Responsiveness of demand to a change in price

Proportional change in demand due to income change

Change in demand due to change in population

None

When demand is perfectly elastic, the demand curve is:

Vertical

Horizontal

Upward sloping

U-shaped

None

If the income elasticity of demand is negative, the good is:

A normal good

An inferior good

A luxury good

A necessity

None

The Law of Supply states that, other things remaining constant:

Supply falls as price rises

Supply rises as price rises

Supply remains unchanged regardless of price

Supply fluctuates randomly with price

None

Market equilibrium occurs when:

Supply exceeds demand

Demand exceeds supply

Supply equals demand

None of the above

None

Which of the following is a short-run production concept?

Returns to scale

Law of variable proportions

Long-run average cost curve

Optimum plant size

None

10.

The cost incurred on fixed inputs is called:

Variable cost

Fixed cost

Marginal cost

Total cost

None

11.

In a perfectly competitive market:

Firms are price makers

Firms are price takers

Firms can influence market demand

Only one firm exists

None

12.

Which market structure is characterized by a single seller?

Monopoly

Oligopoly

Perfect competition

Monopolistic competition

None

13.

Price rigidity is a characteristic of:

Monopoly

Perfect competition

Monopolistic competition

Oligopoly

None

14.

National Income is defined as the:

Total revenue of the government

Total value of goods and services produced in a country

Net foreign income of a country

Total savings in an economy

None

15.

The expenditure method of calculating national income includes:

Wages, rent, interest, and profits

Government expenditure, consumption, investment, and net exports

Consumption and investment only

Only exports and imports

None

16.

The New Economic Policy of 1991 emphasized:

Nationalization of industries

Liberalization, Privatization, and Globalization (LPG)

Import substitution policies

Heavy government intervention in the economy

None

17.

Disinvestment means:

Investing in new ventures

Selling government stake in public sector enterprises

Increasing foreign direct investment

Reducing private sector participation

None

18.

The largest contributor to India's GDP is:

Agriculture

Industry

Services

Mining

None

19.

The Green Revolution in India was initiated to improve:

Industrial production

Service sector output

Agricultural productivity

Infrastructure development

None

20.

Which sector is considered the backbone of the Indian economy?

Manufacturing

Agriculture

Services

Construction

None

21.

Sustainable development means:

Maximizing economic growth at any cost

Meeting present needs without compromising future generations’ ability to meet their needs

Promoting only renewable energy

Limiting industrial growth

None

22.

The Human Development Index (HDI) includes all EXCEPT:

Life expectancy

Standard of living

Education

Military expenditure

None

23.

Which of the following is a component of India’s Green Energy initiatives?

Focus on thermal energy

Expansion of wind and solar energy

Increasing coal production

Promoting nuclear energy only

None

24.

The primary objective of economic planning in India is

Maximization of exports

Balanced regional development

Achieving self-sufficiency in military production

Promoting private sector growth only

None

25.

Which Five-Year Plan introduced the concept of ‘Growth with Social Justice’?

First Five-Year Plan

Fourth Five-Year Plan

Fifth Five-Year Plan

Seventh Five-Year Plan

None

26.

Fiscal deficit refers to:

Excess of government expenditure over revenue

Total income of the government

Excess of exports over imports

Balance between revenue and expenditure

None

27.

A direct tax is:

A tax levied on goods and services

A tax directly paid by individuals or corporations to the government

A tax collected by intermediaries and remitted to the government

A tax levied on exports

None

28.

GST (Goods and Services Tax) is an example of:

Direct tax

Indirect tax

Wealth tax

Income tax

None

29.

The Reserve Bank of India was established in:

1935

1947

1950

1969

None

30.

Monetary policy is primarily used to:

Regulate government expenditure

Control inflation and stabilize the economy

Promote exports and imports

Reduce fiscal deficit

None

31.

Which of the following is NOT a monetary policy instrument?

Repo rate

Cash reserve ratio

Public expenditure

Open market operations

None

32.

Inflation is defined as:

Persistent rise in the price level of goods and services

Decrease in the purchasing power of money

Increase in money supply

All of the above

None

33.

Balance of Payments (BoP) is:

The record of a country’s imports and exports

A statement of all economic transactions between a country and the rest of the world

The difference between exports and imports

None of the above

None

34.

When imports exceed exports, it is termed as:

Trade surplus

Trade deficit

Balanced trade

Trade equilibrium

None

35.

The WTO (World Trade Organization) was established in:

1985

1995

2000

2010

None

36.

The main objective of WTO is to:

Promote free and fair trade

Impose restrictions on international trade

Encourage trade only among developed countries

Regulate domestic policies of nations

None

37.

Economic growth is measured by:

National income growth rate

Per capita income

GDP growth rate

All of the above

None

38.

A country’s standard of living is best measured by:

GDP per capita

National income

Population growth

Export earnings

None

39.

Which of the following is a qualitative tool of monetary policy?

Bank rate

Open market operation

Margin requirements

Repo rate

None

40.

Which sector is the largest employer in India?

Manufacturing

Agriculture

Services

Construction

None

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Welcome to your International Navodaya Chamber of Commerce (INCOC) Platform !

Subject: Quantitativee Aptitude

Total Number of Question: 40

Time: 41 Minutes

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All the best...

Name

Phone No

State

What is the value of (a+b)2(a + b)^2(a+b)2 when a=2a = 2a=2 and b=3b = 3b=3?

None

The simple interest on Rs. 8000 for 4 years at 5% per annum is:

Rs. 1200

Rs. 1600

Rs. 1800

Rs. 2000

None

What is the compound interest on Rs. 10,000 at 10% per annum for 2 years compounded annually?

Rs. 1200

Rs. 2100

Rs. 2200

Rs. 1210

None

The product of two consecutive integers is 72. What are the integers?

8, 9

7, 8

6, 7

9, 10

None

The sum of the first 15 terms of an arithmetic progression with a common difference of 3 and a first term of 2 is:

125

185

360

345

None

If ‘APPLE’ is coded as ‘ZKKOV,’ how is ‘BALL’ coded?

ZZYH

ZYXH

ZYYH

ZYXZ

None

A train runs 360 km in 3 hours. What is its speed?

120 km/h

140 km/h

100 km/h

110 km/h

None

Find the odd one out: 36, 49, 64, 81, 100.

None

What is the missing number in the series: 2, 4, 8, 16, ___?

None

10.

If the letters of the word "CAUTION" are rearranged alphabetically, which letter comes in the 3rd position?

None

11.

The range of the data set {5, 8, 12, 20, 3} is:

None

12.

The median of the data {2, 5, 7, 10, 12} is:

None

13.

What is the mean of the data set {6, 8, 10, 14}?

9.5

8.5

None

14.

The variance of {3, 5, 7, 9} is:

None

15.

If the mean of 5 numbers is 10, the sum of the numbers is:

None

16.

If a coin is tossed twice, what is the probability of getting exactly one head?

1/2

1/3

1/4

2/3

None

17.

How many ways can 5 different books be arranged on a shelf?

120

240

720

None

18.

The probability of drawing an ace from a deck of cards is:

1/13

1/26

1/52

2/13

None

19.

The number of permutations of the letters in the word "MANGO" is:

120

180

240

None

20.

A die is rolled. The probability of getting an odd number is:

1/2

1/3

1/6

None

21.

If a3=8a^3 = 8a3=8, then aaa is:

None

22.

The value of 144\sqrt{144}144 is:

None

23.

The product of the roots of the equation x2−5x+6=0x^2 - 5x + 6 = 0x2−5x+6=0 is:

-5

-6

None

24.

The value of 4!4!4! (4 factorial) is

None

25.

If the logarithm of 1000 to base 10 is xxx, then xxx is:

None

26.

If the logarithm of 1000 to base 10 is xxx, then xxx is:

None

27.

What is the sum of the first 10 natural numbers?

None

28.

A person borrows Rs. 5000 at 10% p.a. simple interest. After 2 years, the total interest paid is:

Rs. 500

Rs. 1000

Rs. 1500

Rs. 2000

None

29.

If x=4x = 4x=4, what is the value of 2x2+3x−72x^2 + 3x - 72x2+3x−7?

None

30.

The value of (2+3)(2−3)(2 + \sqrt{3})(2 - \sqrt{3})(2+3)(2−3) is:

None

31.

The ratio of two numbers is 3:4, and their sum is 56. What are the numbers?

21 and 35

24 and 32

28 and 32

20 and 36

None

32.

If "CAT" is coded as "DBU," what is the code for "DOG"?

ENH

EPH

DPJ

EPJ

None

33.

Find the missing number in the series: 5, 10, 20, 40, __, 160.

100

120

None

34.

Which number is missing: 2, 6, 12, 20, __, 42?

None

35.

What is the next term in the series: A, C, F, J, __?

None

36.

If the word "STAR" is reversed, the middle two letters are:

A and R

T and A

T and R

S and T

None

37.

The mode of the data set {1, 3, 3, 4, 5, 3, 6} is:

None

38.

What is the mean of {5, 10, 15, 20, 25}?

None

39.

The range of {100, 150, 200, 250} is:

100

200

150

None

40.

If the standard deviation of a data set is 0, it implies:

The data values are equal

The data values are highly variable

The data values are zero

The data values are negative

None

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Welcome to your International Navodaya Chamber of Commerce (INCOC) Platform !

Subject: Quantitativee Aptitude

Total Number of Question: 40

Time: 41 Minutes

Please check your email after completion of test for result.

All the best...

Name

Phone No

State

A sum of money doubles itself in 4 years at compound interest. What is the rate of interest?

10%

15%

20%

25%

None

The compound interest on Rs. 1500 for 2 years at 10% per annum compounded annually is:

Rs. 330

Rs. 340

Rs. 350

Rs. 360

None

The simple interest on a sum of money is Rs. 600 at 10% per annum for 2 years. The principal is:

Rs. 2000

Rs. 3000

Rs. 4000

Rs. 5000

None

The sum of the first 20 terms of an arithmetic progression is 420. If the first term is 10, what is the common difference?

None

Find the simple interest on Rs. 1500 at 5% for 2 years:

Rs. 150

Rs. 200

Rs. 250

Rs. 300

None

If 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, … is a sequence, what will be the 8th term?

None

In a family of five members, P is the father of Q, R is the daughter of Q, and S is the wife of P. How is S related to R?

Mother

Grandmother

Daughter-in-law

Sister

None

If 5x = 20, what is the value of x?

None

In a code language, “FIRE” is written as “GHSF”. How would “GROW” be written in the same code?

HSXP

HSPX

HSWP

HSWX

None

10.

If the sum of two numbers is 20 and their difference is 4, what are the numbers?

12 and 8

14 and 6

115 and 5

16 and 4

None

11.

The mean of the numbers 2, 4, 6, 8, 10 is:

None

12.

The mode of the data: 5, 7, 8, 5, 9, 7, 5 is:

None

13.

The median of the data: 3, 8, 7, 5, 6 is:

None

14.

If the variance of a set of numbers is 16, what is the standard deviation?

None

15.

If the mean of 7, 8, 10, 12, and x is 9, what is the value of x?

None

16.

The probability of drawing a red ball from a bag containing 3 red, 5 white, and 2 green balls is:

3/10

5/10

7/10

2/10

None

17.

How many different ways can 2 women be selected from a group of 4 women?

None

18.

In how many ways can 4 objects be arranged from 6 objects?

120

360

720

None

19.

If two dice are rolled, what is the probability of getting a sum of 8?

5/36

1/6

1/36

7/36

None

20.

The number of ways to arrange the letters in the word "APPLE" is:

120

None

21.

The number of terms in the arithmetic progression 2, 5, 8, 11, … up to 50 is:

None

22.

The number of ways to arrange 3 men and 4 women in a row such that all men sit together is:

None

23.

A die is thrown twice. What is the probability of getting a sum of 9?

1/36

2/36

4/36

5/36

None

24.

A sum of money becomes Rs. 6400 in 2 years and Rs. 8000 in 3 years at compound interest. What is the rate of interest?

12%

10%

15%

20%

None

25.

The sum of the first n terms of a geometric progression is 31. If the first term is 1 and the common ratio is 3, what is n?

None

26.

A bag contains 4 red, 3 blue, and 2 green balls. What is the probability of drawing a red ball?

4/9

5/9

2/9

3/9

None

27.

What is the probability of drawing a queen from a deck of cards?

1/13

1/52

1/26

1/4

None

28.

How many ways can a team of 5 people be selected from 12 people?

792

462

120

144

None

29.

The number of ways in which 4 different books can be arranged on a shelf is:

None

30.

A sum of Rs. 4000 is invested at a rate of 5% per annum compounded quarterly. What will be the amount after 2 years?

Rs. 4420

Rs. 4500

Rs. 4600

Rs. 4700

None

31.

What is the value of log⁡381\log_3 81log381?

None

32.

The number of ways to arrange the letters in the word "MATH" is:

None

33.

The sum of the first 12 terms of the series 3, 6, 9, … is: a

162

168

179

192

None

34.

If a number is divisible by both 3 and 4, it is divisible by:

None

35.

The total number of ways to arrange 3 men and 2 women in a line is:

120

None

36.

If a car travels at 60 km/hr for 2 hours, how far does it travel?

120 km

150 km

180 km

200 km

None

37.

If the pattern is 2, 5, 10, 17, what will be the next term?

None

38.

If 3x + 5 = 20, what is the value of x?

None

39.

Which of the following is the odd one out?

Lion

Tiger

Leopard

Elephant

None

40.

What is the next number in the series: 4, 8, 16, 32?

100

None

1 out of 4

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Welcome to your International Navodaya Chamber of Commerce (INCOC) Platform !

Subject: Quantitativee Aptitude

Total Number of Question: 40

Time: 41 Minutes

Please check your email after completion of test for result.

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Name

Phone No

State

The sum of the first 10 terms of an arithmetic progression is 55. If the first term is 5, what is the common difference?

None

A sum of money triples itself in 5 years at compound interest. What is the rate of interest?

20%

25%

30%

50%

None

The value of log⁡101000\log_{10} 1000log101000 is:

None

Find the compound interest on Rs. 2000 for 2 years at 10% per annum compounded annually

Rs. 220

Rs. 250

Rs. 220.50

Rs. 240

None

What is the future value of Rs. 1000 after 3 years at 5% simple interest?

Rs. 1050

Rs. 1200

Rs. 1100

Rs. 1150

None

If 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, … is a sequence, what will be the 7th term?

None

In a family of six members, A is the father of B. C is the brother of A. D is the sister of C. E is the son of A. How is E related to B?

Brother

Cousin

Sister

None of the above

None

Which of the following number pairs is not a set of co-prime numbers?

3 and 4

6 and 9

5 and 7

8 and 15

None

If in a code language, "CODER" is written as "DPFSE", how would "HELLO" be written in the same code?

IFMMP

IGMMO

IFNMP

JGMMO

None

10.

If 5 men can do a job in 6 days, how many days will 10 men take to do the same job?

None

11.

The mean of the following numbers: 12, 15, 20, 25, 30, 40 is:

None

12.

What is the mode of the following data: 5, 7, 9, 5, 5, 7, 8?

None

13.

The median of 3, 8, 7, 5, 4, 6, 10 is

None

14.

The standard deviation of 2, 4, 6, 8, and 10 is

None

15.

If the variance of a set of data is 25, the standard deviation is:

None

16.

What is the probability of drawing a face card (jack, queen, or king) from a deck of 52 cards?

3/13

1/13

1/4

1/3

None

17.

How many different ways can 3 objects be arranged from 5 objects?

120

None

18.

A bag contains 5 red, 7 blue, and 3 green balls. What is the probability of drawing a blue ball?

7/15

5/15

3/15

7/5

None

19.

In how many ways can a team of 4 members be selected from a group of 7 members?

None

20.

What is the probability of getting a sum of 7 when two dice are rolled?

6/36

1/6

5/36

7/36

None

21.

A sum of money becomes Rs. 8000 in 2 years and Rs. 10000 in 3 years at compound interest. What is the rate of interest?

10%

12%

15%

20%

None

22.

The number of ways in which 5 people can be seated in a row is:

120

None

23.

Find the number of ways to arrange the letters in the word "STATISTICS"

5040

90720

2520

360

None

24.

A bag contains 3 red, 5 white, and 2 black balls. What is the probability of drawing a red ball?

3/10

1/3

1/5

3/5

None

25.

If the mean of the numbers 3, 5, 8, 11, 14 is x, what is the value of x?

8.5

9.5

None

26.

The sum of the first 50 terms of an arithmetic series is 2550. What is the common difference if the first term is 10?

None

27.

In how many ways can 4 men and 5 women be arranged in a row such that all the men sit together?

None

28.

Find the probability of getting a sum of 11 when two dice are rolled.

1/36

1/18

1/12

1/9

None

29.

What is the value of log⁡232\log_2 32log232?

None

30.

The sum of the first n terms of a geometric progression is 31. If the first term is 1 and the common ratio is 2, what is n?

None

31.

The probability of drawing a non-prime number from the set {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9} is:

2/9

3/9

5/9

4/9

None

32.

The sum of the first n terms of an arithmetic series is given by Sn=n/2(2a+(n−1)d)S_n = n/2 (2a + (n-1) d)Sn=n/2(2a+(n−1)d). If a = 1, d = 2, and n = 5, find SnS_nSn.

None

33.

The value of 5!5!5! is:

120

100

110

140

None

34.

A box contains 4 blue, 3 red, and 2 yellow balls. What is the probability of drawing a yellow ball?

2/9

2/3

1/3

3/9

None

35.

In a deck of cards, what is the probability of drawing a card that is either a king or a queen?

2/13

4/52

1/13

2/52

None

36.

If the arithmetic mean of the numbers 1, 5, 7, 11, 13 is:

None

37.

The compound interest on Rs. 1500 for 2 years at 10% per annum compounded annually is:

Rs. 330

Rs. 340

Rs. 350

Rs. 360

None

38.

The simple interest on a sum of money is Rs. 600 at 10% per annum for 2 years. The principal is:

Rs. 2000

Rs. 3000

Rs. 4000

Rs. 5000

None

39.

The sum of the first 20 terms of an arithmetic progression is 420. If the first term is 10, what is the common difference?

None

40.

Find the simple interest on Rs. 1500 at 5% for 2 years:

Rs. 150

Rs. 200

Rs. 250

Rs. 300

None

1 out of 4

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We appreciate your interest in test.

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