Welcome to your International Navodaya Chamber of Commerce (INCOC) Platform ! Subject: Strategic Financial Management Total Number of Question: 40 Time: 41 Minutes Please check your email after completion of test for result. All the best... Name Phone No Email State 1. The Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) is used to estimate: The intrinsic value of a stock The expected return of an asset based on its risk The break-even point of a company The credit rating of a bond None 2. Diversification helps to reduce which type of risk? Systematic risk Unsystematic risk Inflation risk Interest rate risk None 3. Which theory states that investors should maximize return for a given level of risk Arbitrage Pricing Theory Modern Portfolio Theory (MPT) Efficient Market Hypothesis Gordon Growth Model None 4. Beta measures a stock’s sensitivity to: Company-specific risk Market risk Liquidity risk Interest rate fluctuations None 5. The correlation between two perfectly negatively correlated assets is: 0 +1 -1 0.5 None 6. Which type of exchange rate system is determined by supply and demand forces? Fixed exchange rate Floating exchange rate Pegged exchange rate Dual exchange rate None 7. Which instrument is commonly used to hedge currency risk? Forward contract Mutual fund Commercial paper Treasury bond None 8. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) theory explains the relationship between: Inflation and exchange rates Interest rates and stock prices GDP and unemployment Corporate tax rates and foreign investmen None 9. Which of the following is a measure of a country’s overall economic transactions with the rest of the world? Balance of Payments (BoP) Fiscal Deficit Monetary Policy Inflation Index None 10. Which international financial institution provides short-term loans to countries facing balance of payments problems? World Bank International Monetary Fund (IMF) Asian Development Bank (ADB) Bank for International Settlements (BIS) None 11. Which type of merger occurs between companies in unrelated industries? Horizontal merger Vertical merger Conglomerate merger Market-extension merger None 12. Which financial strategy is used to avoid hostile takeovers? Leveraged Buyou Poison Pill Joint Venture Asset Securitization None 13. In an acquisition, the company being purchased is known as the: Acquirer Target company Holding company Subsidiary None 14. Which of the following is not a reason for corporate restructuring? Reducing operational inefficiencies Expanding into new markets Increasing financial leverage Increasing working capital needs None 15. Which strategy involves selling off a part of a company to focus on core business areas? Divestiture Merger Acquisition Conglomerate Expansion None 16. Which financial derivative provides the right but not the obligation to buy or sell an asset? Future Swaps Options Forward contracts None 17. What is the main advantage of using futures contracts? Customization No counterparty risk Guaranteed profits No margin requirements None 18. Which of the following best describes a "swap" in finance? Exchange of cash flows Buying a put option Selling a bond Merging two companies None 19. Which type of option can only be exercised at expiration? European option American option Asian option Bermudan option None 20. Hedging with derivatives is primarily used to: Reduce financial risk Maximize returns Eliminate all risks Increase market exposure None 21. Which financial market deals with newly issued securities? Primary market Secondary market Money market Forex market None 22. Which of the following is a short-term financial instrument? Debenture Commercial paper Equity share Mutual fund None 23. The stock market is an example of which type of market? Derivative marke Capital market Money market Commodity market None 24. What is the role of SEBI in the financial market? Regulate and protect investor interests Issue government bonds Control exchange rates Provide short-term loans to businesses None 25. Which financial institution is primarily responsible for monetary policy in India? SEBI RBI IRDAI NABARD None 26. A company in India imports goods worth $50,000. The spot rate is ₹82/USD, and the 3-month forward rate is ₹83/USD. If the company decides to hedge its exposure using a forward contract, what will be its total payment in INR? ₹4,100,000 ₹4,150,000 ₹4,000,000 ₹4,200,000 None 27. A trader expects the USD/INR spot rate to increase from ₹82/USD to ₹85/USD. If they buy a call option with a strike price of ₹83/USD, what will be their profit per USD if the option premium is ₹1.50? ₹2.50 ₹3.00 ₹1.50 ₹0.50 None 28. A US investor holds an Indian bond worth ₹1,000,000. If the current exchange rate is ₹82/USD and depreciates to ₹85/USD, what will be the loss in USD? $365 $588 $3,659 $4,120 None 29. A futures contract on gold has a spot price of ₹5,000 per gram and a futures price of ₹5,200 per gram. If an investor buys 10 grams, what is the total profit or loss if the spot price at maturity is ₹5,300 per gram? ₹1,000 profit ₹1,500 profit ₹500 loss ₹1,000 loss None 30. An investor buys a put option with a strike price of ₹100, an option premium of ₹5, and the stock price falls to ₹90 at expiry. What is the investor's profit per share? ₹10 ₹5 ₹-5 (loss) ₹15 None 31. A company hedges its fuel costs using futures contracts. If it locks in a price of ₹80 per liter and the market price rises to ₹90 per liter, what is the hedging gain per liter? ₹10 ₹5 ₹0 ₹15 None 32. A project requires an initial investment of ₹500,000 and generates annual cash flows of ₹150,000 for 5 years. If the discount rate is 10%, what is the NPV? ₹47,725 ₹53,620 ₹72,915 ₹65,430 None 33. A machine costs ₹200,000 and has a salvage value of ₹20,000 after 5 years. If the annual depreciation using the straight-line method is calculated, what is the yearly depreciation? ₹40,000 ₹36,000 ₹42,000 ₹38,000 None 34. A project has an initial outlay of ₹400,000 and generates ₹120,000 annually for 4 years. What is the Payback Period? 3.33 years 3.75 years 4.00 years 3.50 years None 35. If Stock A has a return of 12% with a weight of 40% and Stock B has a return of 8% with a weight of 60%, what is the portfolio return? 9.2% 9.6% 10.4% 8.8% None 36. If Stock A has a beta of 1.2 and Stock B has a beta of 0.8, what is the portfolio beta if both are equally weighted? 1.0 1.1 1.2 0.9 None 37. If a stock has a standard deviation of 15% and a correlation with the market of 0.7, while the market's standard deviation is 10%, what is the stock’s beta? 1.05 1.10 1.15 1.20 None 38. If a portfolio consists of two stocks with a correlation of -1, what happens to total risk? No change Risk is minimized Risk increases Risk is eliminated None 39. A bond pays a 5% annual coupon and has a market price of ₹1,100. If the face value is ₹1,000, what is its current yield? 4.55% 5.00% 5.45% 4.90% None 40. Which type of portfolio strategy involves adjusting asset allocation based on market trends? Passive Management Tactical Asset Allocation Buy and Hold Index Investing None 1 out of 4 Great job on taking the INCOC Test! We appreciate your interest in test. Look out for results and future opportunities. Stay Connected !! Your quiz time is about to finish. Few seconds left. Time's upYou cannot switch tabs while taking this quiz!You are not allowed to switch tabs violation has been recorded.you cannot minimize full screen mode!You are not allowed to minimize full screen while taking this quiz, violation has been recorded.Access denied! To begin the quiz, please grant this quiz access to your camera.Time is Up!Time is Up!
Welcome to your International Navodaya Chamber of Commerce (INCOC) Platform ! Subject: Strategic Financial Management Total Number of Question: 40 Time: 41 Minutes Please check your email after completion of test for result. All the best... Name Phone No Email State 1. The Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) is used to estimate: The intrinsic value of a stock The expected return of an asset based on its risk The break-even point of a company The credit rating of a bond None 2. Diversification helps to reduce which type of risk? Systematic risk Unsystematic risk Inflation risk Interest rate risk None 3. . Which theory states that investors should maximize return for a given level of risk Arbitrage Pricing Theory Modern Portfolio Theory (MPT) Efficient Market Hypothesis Gordon Growth Model None 4. Beta measures a stock’s sensitivity to: Company-specific risk Market risk Liquidity risk Interest rate fluctuations None 5. The correlation between two perfectly negatively correlated assets is: 0 +1 -1 0.5 None 6. Which type of exchange rate system is determined by supply and demand forces? Fixed exchange rate Floating exchange rate Pegged exchange rate Dual exchange rate None 7. Which instrument is commonly used to hedge currency risk? Forward contract Mutual fund Commercial paper Treasury bond None 8. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) theory explains the relationship between: Inflation and exchange rates Interest rates and stock prices GDP and unemployment Corporate tax rates and foreign investmen None 9. Which of the following is a measure of a country’s overall economic transactions with the rest of the world? Balance of Payments (BoP) Fiscal Deficit Monetary Policy Inflation Index None 10. Which international financial institution provides short-term loans to countries facing balance of payments problems? World Bank International Monetary Fund (IMF) Asian Development Bank (ADB) Bank for International Settlements (BIS) None 11. Which type of merger occurs between companies in unrelated industries? Horizontal merger Vertical merger Conglomerate merger Market-extension merger None 12. Which financial strategy is used to avoid hostile takeovers? Leveraged Buyou Poison Pill Joint Venture Asset Securitization None 13. In an acquisition, the company being purchased is known as the: Acquirer Target company Holding company Subsidiary None 14. Which of the following is not a reason for corporate restructuring? Reducing operational inefficiencies Expanding into new markets Increasing financial leverage Increasing working capital needs None 15. Which strategy involves selling off a part of a company to focus on core business areas? Divestiture Merger Acquisition Conglomerate Expansion None 16. Which financial derivative provides the right but not the obligation to buy or sell an asset? Future Swaps Options Forward contracts None 17. What is the main advantage of using futures contracts? Customization No counterparty risk Guaranteed profits No margin requirements None 18. Which of the following best describes a "swap" in finance? Exchange of cash flows Buying a put option Selling a bond Merging two companies None 19. Which type of option can only be exercised at expiration? European option American option Asian option Bermudan option None 20. Hedging with derivatives is primarily used to: Reduce financial risk Maximize returns Eliminate all risks Increase market exposure None 21. Which financial market deals with newly issued securities? Primary market Secondary market Money market Forex market None 22. Which of the following is a short-term financial instrument? Debenture Commercial paper Equity share Mutual fund None 23. The stock market is an example of which type of market? Derivative marke Capital market Money market Commodity market None 24. What is the role of SEBI in the financial market? Regulate and protect investor interests Issue government bonds Control exchange rates Provide short-term loans to businesses None 25. Which financial institution is primarily responsible for monetary policy in India? SEBI RBI IRDAI NABARD None 26. Which valuation method discounts future cash flows to present value? Market-based valuation Discounted Cash Flow (DCF) method Asset-based valuation Earnings multiple approach None 27. Which of the following is NOT a key assumption in the Gordon Growth Model? Constant dividend growth rate Constant required rate of return No risk in investment Infinite dividend payments None 28. What is the primary objective of corporate governance? Maximize stock price Ensure transparency and accountability Reduce dividend payouts Increase corporate tax liability None 29. Which committee in corporate governance is responsible for overseeing financial reporting? Nomination Committee Audit Committee Compensation Committee Risk Management Committee None 30. Which financial metric is commonly used to assess a company's valuation? Earnings Per Share (EPS) Return on Investment (ROI Price-to-Earnings (P/E) Ratio Debt-to-Equity Ratio None 31. Which behavioral bias makes investors hold on to losing stocks for too long? Loss Aversio Herd Mentality Overconfidence Bias Framing Bias None 32. The tendency of investors to follow market trends without independent analysis is called: Herding Behavior Anchoring Bias Mental Accounting Confirmation Bias None 33. Overconfidence in one's investment skills can lead to: Lower trading frequency Excessive risk-taking Better investment decisions Reduced market volatility None 34. What does the "Disposition Effect" refer to in behavioral finance? Selling winning stocks too soon and holding losing stocks too long Investing in familiar stocks only Overreacting to market news Ignoring new information None 35. Which of the following is an example of mental accounting? Treating a bonus differently from regular salary income Investing only in index funds Ignoring tax implications of investments Using financial statements for investment decisions None 36. A financial plan includes all of the following EXCEPT: Investment strategy Risk assessment Corporate branding strategy Budgeting and forecasting None 37. Which of the following is a characteristic of an effective financial strategy? Short-term focus only Alignment with corporate goals Avoiding debt at all cos Ignoring market conditions None 38. Scenario analysis in financial planning is used to: Forecast financial performance under different conditions Increase stock prices Minimize dividend payouts Predict employee turnover None 39. Which financial tool is used to analyze the impact of different business decisions? Sensitivity analysis Net Present Value (NPV) Break-even analysis All of the above None 40. What is the primary purpose of financial forecasting? Ensure tax compliance Predict future financial performance Determine employee salaries Manage fixed asset depreciation None 1 out of 4 Great job on taking the INCOC Test! We appreciate your interest in test. Look out for results and future opportunities. Stay Connected !! Your quiz time is about to finish. Few seconds left. Time's upYou cannot switch tabs while taking this quiz!You are not allowed to switch tabs violation has been recorded.you cannot minimize full screen mode!You are not allowed to minimize full screen while taking this quiz, violation has been recorded.Access denied! To begin the quiz, please grant this quiz access to your camera.Time is Up!Time is Up!
Welcome to your International Navodaya Chamber of Commerce (INCOC) Platform ! Subject: Strategic Financial Management Total Number of Question: 40 Time: 41 Minutes Please check your email after completion of test for result. All the best... Name Phone No Email State 1. Which financial management decision involves deciding the best way to finance a company’s operations? Investment Decision Financing Decision Dividend Decision Liquidity Decision None 2. Which of the following is not a key element of strategic financial management? Risk management Short-term profit maximization Capital structure decisions Corporate valuation None 3. The primary aim of strategic financial management is: Increasing sales Maximizing shareholder wealth Reducing tax liabilities Increasing debt financing None 4. What is the role of a Chief Financial Officer (CFO) in strategic finance? Managing daily accounting tasks Implementing financial strategy and risk management Setting HR policies Managing customer relations None 5. Which concept helps firms in assessing their financial strategies in changing environments? Scenario Planning Zero-Based Budgeting Cost Leadership Asset-Based Valuation None 6. Which capital budgeting method measures profitability by discounting cash flows at the required rate of return? Payback Period Net Present Value (NPV) Accounting Rate of Return (ARR) None of the above None 7. What does a negative NPV indicate? The project should be rejected The project will increase firm value The IRR is greater than the cost of capital The project has no risk None 8. Which technique finds the discount rate at which NPV becomes zero? Internal Rate of Return (IRR) Payback Period Profitability Index Sensitivity Analysis None 9. Which of the following is a limitation of Payback Period? Ignores time value of money Considers all cash flows Measures risk accurately Considers capital structure decisions None 10. What does the Profitability Index (PI) measure? Ratio of present value of cash inflows to initial investment Time taken to recover investment Accounting profits over initial investment The amount of dividends paid None 11. Which risk cannot be eliminated through diversification? Business Risk Systematic Risk Operational Risk Credit Risk None 12. Which of the following is an example of unsystematic risk? Inflation Stock Market Crash Change in government policy Company fraud None 13. What does Beta measure in the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM)? A stock’s total risk A stock’s systematic risk A firm’s overall profitability The book value of a firm None 14. Which of the following is a derivative instrument? Mutual Funds Treasury Bonds Futures Contracts Fixed Deposits None 15. Hedging is primarily used to: Increase risk Reduce financial risk Maximize short-term profits Avoid taxes None 16. Which of the following valuation methods uses projected future earnings? Market Capitalization Discounted Cash Flow (DCF) Book Value Dividend Yield None 17. The Gordon Growth Model is used to value companies based on: Earnings growth rate Dividend growth rate Market demand Current liabilities None 18. Which financial ratio is commonly used for relative valuation? Price-to-Earnings (P/E) Ratio Return on Assets (ROA) Inventory TurnoverQuick Ratio None 19. A higher Price-to-Earnings (P/E) ratio indicates: The stock is undervalued The stock is overvalued The company has high debt The company is not profitable None 20. Which valuation method considers the breakup value of a company’s assets? Market Valuation Asset-Based Valuation Earnings Valuation Dividend Discount Model None 21. A merger between two companies producing similar products in the same industry is called a: Horizontal Merger Vertical Merger Conglomerate Merger Reverse Merger None 22. Which restructuring strategy involves selling off a business unit? Divestiture Merger Acquisition Consolidation None 23. What is the main reason companies engage in mergers? To increase risk exposure To achieve synergy To reduce market share To avoid competition None 24. Which strategy is used to avoid hostile takeovers? Poison Pill White Knight Golden Parachute All of the above None 25. Which term refers to acquiring a company by taking on significant debt? Leveraged Buyout (LBO) Strategic Alliance Joint Venture Debt Refinancing None 26. Which of the following is not a component of working capital? Inventory Cash and Bank Balances Fixed Assets Accounts Receivable None 27. The primary objective of working capital management is to: Maximize profits Ensure liquidity and smooth operations Minimize tax liability Reduce production costs None 28. Which working capital financing strategy has the highest risk and return? Conservative Approach Aggressive Approach Moderate Approach Passive Approach None 29. Which of the following is an example of spontaneous financing? Bank loan Trade credit Debentures Equity capital None 30. Which ratio is used to measure a firm’s short-term liquidity? Debt-Equity Ratio Current Ratio Return on Equity (ROE) Price-to-Earnings (P/E) Ratio None 31. Which of the following is a source of equity financing? Debentures Term Loans Preference Shares Retained Earnings None 32. Which financial leverage ratio measures the proportion of debt in capital structure Current Ratio Debt-to-Equity Ratio Inventory Turnover Ratio Interest Coverage Ratio None 33. What does a high financial leverage indicate? High dependence on debt financing High return on investment Low financial risk Higher liquidity None 34. Which capital structure theory suggests an optimal mix of debt and equity to minimize cost of capital? Modigliani and Miller (M&M) Proposition I Traditional Approach Pecking Order Theory Dividend Irrelevance Theory None 35. What happens when a firm’s return on assets (ROA) is higher than the cost of debt Financial leverage increases shareholder value The firm incurs losses The firm should reduce debt The firm’s earnings decline None 36. Which of the following dividend policies ensures constant dividend payout ratio? Regular Dividend Policy Stable Dividend Policy Residual Dividend Policy Constant Payout Ratio Policy None 37. According to the Dividend Irrelevance Theory, what impacts stock price the most Dividend policy Earnings and profitability Dividend payout ratio Stock splits None 38. Which of the following factors affect a company's dividend decision? Profitability Liquidity position Shareholder preferences All of the above None 39. What is the primary advantage of stock dividends over cash dividends? No dilution of ownership Immediate cash inflow Improves liquidity of the company Helps in retaining earnings for growth None 40. When a company repurchases its own shares, it is called: Stock Split Share Buyback Bonus Issue Rights Issue None 1 out of 4 Great job on taking the INCOC Test! We appreciate your interest in test. Look out for results and future opportunities. Stay Connected !! Your quiz time is about to finish. Few seconds left. Time's upYou cannot switch tabs while taking this quiz!You are not allowed to switch tabs violation has been recorded.you cannot minimize full screen mode!You are not allowed to minimize full screen while taking this quiz, violation has been recorded.Access denied! To begin the quiz, please grant this quiz access to your camera.Time is Up!Time is Up!
Welcome to your International Navodaya Chamber of Commerce (INCOC) Platform ! Subject: Strategic Financial Management Total Number of Question: 40 Time: 41 Minutes Please check your email after completion of test for result. All the best... Name Phone No Email State 1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Strategic Financial Management? Long-term orientation Focus on short-term profits Risk management Value maximization None 2. What is the primary goal of strategic financial management? Profit Maximization Wealth Maximization Sales Maximization Revenue Maximization None 3. Which of the following best defines corporate strategy? A set of competitive moves in a business unit Focus on operational efficiency The overall scope and direction of a corporation Setting day-to-day business goals None 4. Which type of financial strategy focuses on funding long-term investments? Working Capital Management Capital Budgeting Dividend Policy Liquidity Management None 5. What is the main objective of financial restructuring? Maximizing debt financing Improving financial health Reducing operational costs Avoiding taxation None 6. Which method considers the time value of money in capital budgeting? Payback Period Accounting Rate of Return Internal Rate of Return None of the above None 7. What is the minimum acceptable rate of return in capital budgeting? Payback period Cost of capital Net profit margin Gross margin None 8. Which capital budgeting technique measures profitability as a percentage of the initial investment? IRR NPV Payback Period ARR None 9. Which factor is not considered in capital budgeting decisions? Cost of capital Market demand Depreciation method Tax implications None 10. What happens when NPV is positive? Reject the project Accept the project The project breaks even None of the above None 11. Which technique is used to assess project risk? Sensitivity Analysis EOQ Model Break-even Analysis None of the above None 12. What does a high standard deviation indicate in capital budgeting? Low risk High risk No risk Moderate risk None 13. Which risk measure accounts for both systematic and unsystematic risk? Beta Standard Deviation Alpha Risk-free rate None 14. Diversification helps in reducing which type of risk? Systematic risk Unsystematic risk Inflation risk Market risk None 15. Which of the following is an example of systematic risk? Business failure Industry-specific regulations Interest rate changes Poor management decisions None 16. Which approach is not used for business valuation? Asset-based approach Income-based approach Market-based approach Profit-sharing approach None 17. Which of the following is not a component of Free Cash Flow to Equity (FCFE)? Net Income Depreciation Capital Expenditure Revenue None 18. Which valuation model discounts future dividends? Gordon Growth Model CAPM NPV Model Arbitrage Pricing Theory None 19. Which factor increases the value of a firm under the DCF model? Higher discount rate Higher expected cash flows Increased debt financing Higher tax rate None 20. What does a high P/E ratio indicate? Undervalued stock Overvalued stock High risk Low profitability None 21. Which type of merger occurs between companies in different industries? Horizontal Merger Vertical Merger Conglomerate Merger Market Extension Merger None 22. What is the primary motive behind a hostile takeover? Friendly negotiation Strategic alliance Acquiring control against the will of management Reducing tax liabilities None 23. What is a leveraged buyout (LBO)? Buying a company using mostly borrowed funds Selling a company to competitors Government acquisition of a firm None of the above None 24. Which term refers to selling a part of a company as an independent entity? Spin-off Merger Acquisition Buyout None 25. Which method is used to defend against a hostile takeover? Poison Pill Golden Parachute White Knight All of the above None 26. Which of the following is not a derivative instrument? Futures Options Bonds Swaps None 27. In an option contract, what is the price at which the underlying asset can be bought or sold? Market price Strike price Premium Future price None 28. A call option gives the holder the right to: Buy the asset at the strike price Sell the asset at the strike price Buy the asset at the market price Sell the asset at the market price None 29. What is the primary purpose of hedging with derivatives? To increase risk To speculate on market movements To reduce financial risk To maximize short-term profits None 30. Which financial instrument allows the exchange of cash flows between two parties? Futures Options Swaps Warrants None 31. Which type of risk arises due to fluctuations in exchange rates? Credit risk Market risk Currency risk Liquidity risk None 32. Which strategy is commonly used to manage foreign exchange risk? Forward contracts Leasing Factoring Stock buyback None 33. What is the primary advantage of using currency futures? Fixed contract sizes Low cost No counterparty risk High leverage None 34. Which of the following is a method of managing transaction exposure? Hedging with forward contracts Investing in real estate Increasing company debt Changing the production process None 35. What does "translation exposure" refer to? Risk from translating financial statements of foreign subsidiaries Risk from changing currency values in export contracts Risk from interest rate fluctuations Risk from economic conditions in a foreign country None 36. Which financial service involves managing investment portfolios? Underwriting Asset Management Leasing Venture Capital None 37. Which financial instrument represents ownership in a company? Bonds Preference shares Equity shares Debentures None 38. Which term refers to an initial sale of shares to the public? Secondary offering Initial Public Offering (IPO) Rights issue Private placement None 39. What is the role of a credit rating agency? Provide investment advice Assess credit risk of securities Regulate stock exchanges Manage mutual funds None 40. Which of the following is a long-term source of finance? Trade credit Bank overdraft Equity capital Commercial paper None 1 out of 4 Great job on taking the INCOC Test! We appreciate your interest in test. Look out for results and future opportunities. Stay Connected !! Your quiz time is about to finish. Few seconds left. Time's upYou cannot switch tabs while taking this quiz!You are not allowed to switch tabs violation has been recorded.you cannot minimize full screen mode!You are not allowed to minimize full screen while taking this quiz, violation has been recorded.Access denied! To begin the quiz, please grant this quiz access to your camera.Time is Up!Time is Up!
Welcome to your International Navodaya Chamber of Commerce (INCOC) Platform ! Subject: Corporate and Economic Laws Total Number of Question: 40 Time: 41 Minutes Please check your email after completion of test for result. All the best... Name Phone No Email State 1. Which of the following committees is mandatory for listed companies under SEBI regulations? Ethics Committee Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) Committee Audit Committee Management Committee None 2. The minimum number of independent directors required in a listed company is: 1/3rd of the total Board 1/2 of the total Board 1/4th of the total Board No requirement None 3. Which section of the Companies Act, 2013 deals with the appointment and qualification of directors? Section 140 Section 149 Section 170 Section 180 None 4. A woman director is mandatory in a listed company and in public companies having: Paid-up capital of ₹100 crore or more Turnover of ₹300 crore or more Net worth of ₹500 crore or more Any of the above None 5. A director who fails to attend Board Meetings for ___ months continuously is deemed to have vacated office: 3 months 6 months 9 months 12 months None 6. A person is disqualified from being appointed as a director if he is convicted of an offense involving moral turpitude and sentenced for a period of: 2 years or more 3 years or more 5 years or more 6 months or more None 7. Which of the following is NOT a function of an Independent Director? Protecting the interests of minority shareholders Participating in the day-to-day management of the company Ensuring corporate governance compliance Providing an independent judgment on strategy and risk management None 8. A company can remove a director before the expiry of his term by passing a: Special Resolution Board Resolution Ordinary Resolution None of the above None 9. In case of resignation, a director must inform the company within: 7 days 15 days 30 days 60 days None 10. The maximum tenure for an independent director in one company is: 3 years 5 years 10 years 20 years None 11. Which of the following is NOT an anti-competitive practice under the Competition Act? Predatory pricing Cartel formation Merger between two companies Abuse of dominant position None 12. The Competition Commission of India (CCI) was established in: 1999 2002 2009 2011 None 13. Which section of the Competition Act, 2002 deals with abuse of dominant position? Section 3 Section 4 Section 5 Section 6 None 14. The penalty for engaging in anti-competitive agreements can be up to: 10% of the company’s net worth 10% of the company’s turnover ₹10 crore ₹100 crore None 15. Which of the following authorities approves combinations under the Competition Act? SEBI RBI CCI NCLT None 16. Under the Consumer Protection Act, who is defined as a 'consumer'? A person buying goods for resale A person availing services for commercial use A person buying goods or services for personal use A business entity None 17. Which of the following is NOT a type of consumer dispute redressal forum? District Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission Securities Appellate Tribunal None 18. The jurisdiction of the District Consumer Forum is for cases involving amounts up to: ₹10 lakh ₹50 lakh ₹1 crore ₹5 crore None 19. The cooling-off period for returning e-commerce goods under the Consumer Protection Act is: 7 days 14 days 30 days No fixed period None 20. Which of the following remedies is NOT available under the Consumer Protection Act? Compensation for defective goods Punishment for the seller Replacement of goods Refund of money None 21. The Environmental Protection Act, 1986 was enacted in response to: The Bhopal Gas Tragedy The Chernobyl Disaster The Kyoto Protocol The Stockholm Conference None 22. Which of the following is NOT covered under environmental law? Water pollution Air pollution Insider trading Waste management None 23. Which organization is responsible for enforcing environmental laws in India? SEBI RBI Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) NITI Aayog None 24. Which of the following industries require Environmental Clearance (EC) before setting up? IT Industry Mining Industry Retail Industry Tourism Industry None 25. Under the Environmental Protection Act, which of the following is a punishable offense? Discharging pollutants beyond permissible limits Filing a consumer complaint Investing in the stock market Selling consumer goods at a discount None 26. Which of the following is NOT a mode of winding up of a company? Voluntary winding up Compulsory winding up by NCLT Strike off by ROC Conversion into an LLP None 27. The liquidator appointed in case of voluntary winding up is called: Official Liquidator Provisional Liquidator Company Liquidator Interim Liquidator None 28. Which form is used to file the resolution for voluntary winding up of a company with ROC? MGT-7 INC-28 MGT-14 STK-2 None 29. Who has the first right to claim payment from the proceeds of a liquidated company? Unsecured creditors Secured creditors Shareholders Employees (salaries and wages) None 30. A ‘promissory note’ must contain: An unconditional promise to pay A conditional promise to pay A promise to pay with a guarantee None of the above None 31. A cheque remains valid for how many months from the date of issue? 1 month 3 month 6 month 12 month None 32. The penalty for dishonor of a cheque under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act may include: Imprisonment up to 2 years or fine up to twice the cheque amount Imprisonment up to 1 year or fine up to the cheque amount Imprisonment up to 6 months or fine up to ₹10,000 No penalty None 33. The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 primarily applies to: Private sector employees Public servants Non-resident Indians All business entities None 34. Which of the following is NOT considered an offense under the Prevention of Corruption Act? Taking a bribe Giving a bribe Reporting a bribe Abetment of bribery None 35. Which section of the IT Act deals with punishment for cyber terrorism? Section 43 Section 66F Section 72A Section 85 None 36. Which of the following is NOT a cybercrime under the IT Act, 2000? Hacking Identity theft Data theft Copyright violation None 37. The minimum number of employees required for the applicability of the Employees' Provident Fund (EPF) Act is: 5 10 20 50 None 38. Under the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965, the minimum bonus payable is: 5% of the salary 8.33% of the salary 10% of the salary 12% of the salary None 39. The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 applies to industrial establishments with at least: 10 workers 20 workers 50 workers 100 workers None 40. The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 provides paid maternity leave for how many weeks? 12 weeks 8 weeks 26 weeks 30 weeks None 1 out of 4 Great job on taking the INCOC Test! We appreciate your interest in test. Look out for results and future opportunities. Stay Connected !! Your quiz time is about to finish. Few seconds left. 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Welcome to your International Navodaya Chamber of Commerce (INCOC) Platform ! Subject: Corporate and Economic Laws Total Number of Question: 40 Time: 41 Minutes Please check your email after completion of test for result. All the best... Name Phone No Email State 1. A company must hold its first Annual General Meeting (AGM) within: 6 months from incorporation 9 months from the end of the first financial year 12 months from incorporation 18 months from incorporation None 2. A company that fails to hold its AGM within the prescribed time is liable for a penalty under: Section 92 Section 96 Section 102 Section 108 None 3. A resolution requiring a 3/4th majority of members present and voting is known as a: Ordinary Resolution Special Resolution Unanimous Resolution Board Resolution None 4. Which form is used for filing a special resolution with the Registrar of Companies (ROC)? MGT-7 INC-22 MGT-14 AOC-4 None 5. Which type of meeting is held between two AGMs of a company? Extraordinary General Meeting (EGM) Statutory Meeting Board Meeting None of the above None 6. A quorum for a General Meeting in a private company with more than 30 members is: 2 members 6 members 3 members 7 members None 7. Who is responsible for maintaining the Minutes of a Board Meeting? CEO Company Secretary Managing Director Shareholders None 8. What is the penalty for failure to file financial statements with the ROC within the prescribed time? ₹10,000 per day ₹1 lakh plus ₹100 per day of default ₹50,000 fixed penalty ₹5 lakh plus ₹500 per day of default None 9. Which of the following requires an Ordinary Resolution? Appointment of a Director Change in Company Name Change in Articles of Association Issuance of Sweat Equity Shares None 10. The notice period required for calling an AGM is: 7 days 14 days 21 days 30 days None 11. Which of the following is NOT regulated by SEBI? Mutual Funds Insurance Companies Merchant Bankers Stock Exchanges None 12. Under SEBI (LODR) Regulations, 2015, listed companies must submit a Corporate Governance Report: Annually Half-yearly Quarterly Monthly None 13. SEBI’s main objective is to: Regulate foreign trade Protect investors and regulate securities markets Control monetary policy Manage public sector banks None 14. Which of the following is NOT a function of SEBI? Prohibiting insider trading Regulating mutual funds Controlling inflation Regulating stock exchanges None 15. Which SEBI regulation governs the issuance of Initial Public Offerings (IPOs)? SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations SEBI (Issue of Capital and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations SEBI (LODR) Regulations SEBI (Mutual Funds) Regulations None 16. Which entity is responsible for approving resolution plans under IBC? NCLT SEBI RBI High Court None 17. Which of the following is a key objective of IBC? Providing relief to debtors only Ensuring smooth liquidation of companies Maximizing asset value for stakeholders Punishing defaulting borrowers None 18. Who appoints the Insolvency Resolution Professional (IRP)? NCLT Creditors' Committee SEBI Reserve Bank of India None 19. Which is the maximum extension period allowed for Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP)? 30 days 60 days 90 days 180 days None 20. If no resolution plan is approved under IBC, what happens to the corporate debtor? It continues business as usual It is liquidated It is taken over by the government It merges with another company None 21. Which agency is responsible for investigating money laundering cases? RBI Enforcement Directorate SEBI CCI None 22. Under PMLA, a reporting entity must file a Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) within: 7 days 14 days 30 days 60 days None 23. The Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU) is under which ministry? Ministry of Finance Ministry of Corporate Affairs Ministry of Home Affairs Ministry of External Affairs None 24. Which of the following transactions is NOT covered under PMLA? Smurfing Insider Trading Structuring Round Tripping None 25. Money laundering typically involves the following stages EXCEPT: Placement Layering Extraction Integration None 26. FEMA primarily regulates transactions related to: Domestic taxation Foreign exchange and trade Industrial licensing Corporate governance None 27. Under FEMA, a current account transaction includes: Foreign investment in real estate Imports and exports of goods Borrowing from foreign banks Acquisition of foreign companies None 28. FEMA is administered by: SEBI RBI Enforcement Directorate Ministry of Finance None 29. Which Act was replaced by FEMA in 1999? Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA) Companies Act, 1956 Income Tax Act, 1961 SEBI Act, 1992 None 30. Which authority monitors cross-border money transactions? RBI SEBI FIU NCLT None 31. The time limit for filing annual returns by a company is: 30 days 45 days 60 days 90 days None 32. The mandatory open offer threshold is triggered under: Companies Act SEBI Substantial Acquisition of Shares and Takeover (SAST) Regulations Foreign Exchange Management Act Competition Act None 33. Which section of the Competition Act deals with the abuse of dominant position? Section 3 Section 4 Section 5 Section 6 None 34. What is the minimum paid-up share capital required for a private company under the Companies Act, 2013? ₹50,000 ₹1,00,000 ₹10,000 No minimum requirement None 35. The time limit for filing annual returns by a company is: 30 days 45 days 60 days 90 days None 36. The maximum penalty for misleading advertisements under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 is: ₹10 lakh ₹50 lakh ₹1 crore ₹2 crore None 37. Which type of share gives voting rights to its holder? Preference Share Equity Share Debenture Convertible Bond None 38. Which of the following companies is NOT required to appoint an independent director? Listed company Public company with paid-up share capital of ₹10 crore or more Private company with paid-up share capital of ₹50 crore Public company with turnover of ₹100 crore or more None 39. The Competition Commission of India (CCI) was established in: 1991 2003 2009 2015 None 40. Who among the following is responsible for signing the financial statements of a company? CFO Managing Director and Company Secretary Statutory Auditor Any employee of the company None 1 out of 4 Great job on taking the INCOC Test! We appreciate your interest in test. Look out for results and future opportunities. Stay Connected !! Your quiz time is about to finish. Few seconds left. 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Welcome to your International Navodaya Chamber of Commerce (INCOC) Platform ! Subject: Corporate and Economic Laws Total Number of Question: 40 Time: 41 Minutes Please check your email after completion of test for result. All the best... Name Phone No Email State 1. Which type of company is required to have a minimum paid-up capital of ₹5 lakh? Private Company Public Company One Person Company Government Company None 2. As per the Companies Act, 2013, which of the following companies is not required to appoint a Company Secretary? Private Company with paid-up capital of ₹2 crore Listed Company Public Company with paid-up capital of ₹10 crore Private Company with paid-up capital of ₹5 crore None 3. Which of the following is true regarding the appointment of an Independent Director? Independent Directors are elected by employees They must not have any material relationship with the company They are the promoters of the company They hold shares in the company None 4. Which section of the Companies Act, 2013 deals with the duties of directors? Section 149 Section 166 Section 172 Section 197 None 5. Which of the following committees is mandatory for listed companies? Corporate Social Responsibility Committee Audit Committee Stakeholders Relationship Committee All of the above None 6. A company is said to be a "subsidiary" of another company when: It owns 10% of the voting power in another company It controls more than 50% of voting power It has more than 25% of the directors in another company It has at least one common director None 7. Who among the following is responsible for signing the financial statements of a company? CFO Managing Director and Company Secretary Statutory Auditor Any employee of the company None 8. A foreign company is defined under which section of the Companies Act, 2013? Section 2(42) Section 135 Section 5 Section 89 None 9. Which of the following does not require shareholder approval by a special resolution? Appointment of an independent director Reduction of share capital Voluntary winding up of a company Change in the registered office from one state to another None 10. The term "quorum" in a Board Meeting refers to: Number of votes required to pass a resolution Minimum number of directors required to hold the meeting Minimum number of shareholders required for a meeting Total number of directors present in a meeting None 11. Which of the following is not a category of Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) under SEBI regulations? Category I Category II Category III Category IV None 12. The primary function of SEBI is to: Regulate stock markets Control inflation Issue banknotes Collect direct taxes None 13. Which of the following is not a part of the SEBI (LODR) Regulations, 2015? Corporate Governance Disclosure of Material Events Insider Trading Regulations Banking Regulations None 14. The primary objective of FEMA is to: Control foreign exchange strictly Facilitate external trade and payments Ban all foreign currency transactions Control Indian stock markets None 15. Which of the following transactions is covered under the capital account as per FEMA? Import of goods Investment in foreign securities Payment for software services Salary payments to NRIs None 16. Which authority administers FEMA? SEBI RBI Ministry of Corporate Affairs CCI None 17. Which of the following is considered an anti-competitive agreement under the Competition Act, 2002? Joint ventures Cartelization Mergers and acquisitions Franchising None 18. Which entity enforces the Competition Act, 2002? SEBI RBI Competition Commission of India (CCI) Income Tax Department None 19. The resolution process under IBC is initiated by filing an application with: NCLT SEBI RBI ITAT None 20. Which of the following is the first step in the corporate insolvency resolution process? Appointment of liquidator Submission of resolution plan Admission of the application by NCLT Asset valuation None 21. The maximum time allowed for completion of the insolvency resolution process for a corporate debtor is: 180 days 270 days 330 days 365 days None 22. Which agency is responsible for enforcing PMLA in India? SEBI RBI Enforcement Directorate CCI None 23. Which of the following is a punishable offense under PMLA? Hiding the source of illegal income Smurfing transactions Holding unaccounted foreign assets All of the above None 24. Under PMLA, banks and financial institutions are required to: Conduct customer due diligence Maintain records of transactions Report suspicious transactions to the Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU) All of the above None 25. A private company can start its business from the date of: Obtaining the Certificate of Incorporation Obtaining the Certificate of Commencement Holding its first board meeting Filing its first financial statement None 26. The maximum number of directors in a private company (without special resolution) is: 10 12 15 20 None 27. Which of the following is a key feature of a listed company? Shares are traded on a recognized stock exchange No need to file annual returns No requirement of an independent director Cannot raise funds from the public None 28. Which of the following is the highest authority for corporate disputes under the Companies Act, 2013? SEBI NCLT RBI Income Tax Tribunal None 29. Under which section of the Companies Act, 2013 is Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) covered? Section 125 Section 135 Section 180 Section 230 None 30. Which form is used for Annual Return Filing by a company? MGT-7 INC-22 DIR-3 AOC-4 None 31. Which committee is responsible for monitoring financial reporting in listed companies? Audit Committee CSR Committee Risk Management Committee Nomination and Remuneration Committee None 32. A dormant company under the Companies Act, 2013 is one that: Has not carried out business for two consecutive financial years Is in the process of liquidation Has been delisted by SEBI Has negative net worth None 33. For a fraud committed under the Companies Act, 2013, a director can be held liable for imprisonment of up to: 1 year 3 year 5 year 10 year None 34. Which of the following actions require shareholder approval through a special resolution? Appointment of an internal auditor Change of registered office from one state to another Filing of quarterly compliance reports Conducting statutory audit None 35. A listed company must appoint a woman director if its paid-up capital exceeds: ₹10 crore ₹50 crore ₹100 crore ₹250 crore None 36. A listed company must file financial statements with the Registrar of Companies within: 30 days from the AGM 60 days from the AGM 90 days from the AGM 120 days from the AGM None 37. Who appoints the first auditor of a company? Board of Directors Shareholders SEBI NCLT None 38. A debenture trustee is required for issuing debentures when the total issue size is: ₹5 crore or more ₹10 crore or more ₹20 crore or more ₹50 crore or more None 39. Which of the following statements about a One Person Company (OPC) is true? It must have at least two members It cannot issue shares to the public It must hold an Annual General Meeting (AGM) It cannot be converted into a private company None 40. Under the Companies Act, 2013, what is the validity period of a shelf prospectus? 6 months 1 year 2 year 3 year None 1 out of 4 Great job on taking the INCOC Test! We appreciate your interest in test. Look out for results and future opportunities. Stay Connected !! Your quiz time is about to finish. Few seconds left. 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Welcome to your International Navodaya Chamber of Commerce (INCOC) Platform ! Subject: Corporate and Economic Laws Total Number of Question: 40 Time: 41 Minutes Please check your email after completion of test for result. All the best... Name Phone No Email State 1. Which of the following is not a type of company under the Companies Act, 2013? Private Company Public Company One Person Company Limited Liability Partnership None 2. The maximum number of members in a private company (excluding employees) as per the Companies Act, 2013 is: 50 100 200 Unlimited None 3. Who appoints the first auditor of a company other than a government company? Shareholders Board of Directors Company Secretary Registrar of Companies None 4. Which form is used for filing the annual return of a company with the Registrar of Companies? MGT-7 AOC-4 DIR-3 INC-22 None 5. The minimum number of directors required in a public company is: 1 2 3 5 None 6. Which section of the Companies Act, 2013 deals with the appointment of independent directors? Section 129 Section 149 Section 197 Section 186 None 7. The corporate social responsibility (CSR) provisions are applicable to companies with a net worth of at least: ₹100 crore ₹250 crore ₹500 crore ₹1,000 crore None 8. Under the Companies Act, 2013, a person can hold directorship in how many public companies at a time? 10 15 20 25 None 9. Which of the following meetings is mandatory for every company except a One Person Company? Annual General Meeting Board Meeting Extraordinary General Meeting Creditors Meeting None 10. A special resolution in a general meeting requires the approval of at least: 25% of members 50% of members 66% of members 75% of members None 11. SEBI was established in the year: 1988 1992 1996 2000 None 12. The primary function of SEBI is to: Regulate stock markets Control inflation Issue banknotes Collect direct taxes None 13. Which of the following is not a function of SEBI? Protecting investors’ interests Regulating mutual funds Issuing currency notes Promoting fair trade practices in the securities market None 14. FEMA replaced which of the following Acts? SEBI Act, 1992 FERA, 1973 SARFAESI Act, 2002 Companies Act, 1956 None 15. Under FEMA, an Indian resident can remit up to how much per year under the Liberalized Remittance Scheme (LRS)? $50,000 $100,000 $250,000 $500,000 None 16. The Competition Commission of India (CCI) was established in: 1991 2003 2009 2015 None 17. The Competition Act prohibits agreements that cause: Monopoly Cartels Unfair trade practices All of the above None 18. The IBC provides for the resolution of insolvency within: 90 days 180 days 270 days 330 days None 19. Which tribunal deals with corporate insolvency under IBC? ITAT NCLT CCI SEBI None 20. The main purpose of PMLA is to prevent: Black money circulation Tax evasion Money laundering Corruption in government offices None 21. Which of the following documents is required for the incorporation of a company? Articles of Association Memorandum of Association Declaration by professionals All of the above None 22. A person is disqualified from being appointed as a director if they have not paid calls on shares held by them for more than: 3 months 6 months 1 year 2 year None 23. Which of the following is true about a One Person Company (OPC)? It can have more than one director It requires a minimum of two shareholders It cannot be converted into a private company It is required to hold an AGM None 24. Which section of the Companies Act, 2013 deals with the doctrine of Indoor Management? Section 56 Section 99 Section 168 Not specifically mentioned in the Act None 25. The power to remove a director before the expiry of their term is given under: Section 115 Section 169 Section 197 Section 246 None 26. Which authority has the power to investigate a company's affairs under Section 210 of the Companies Act, 2013? SEBI CCI Central Government RBI None 27. Which form is filed for the appointment of a director in a company? DIR-3 DIR-12 INC-20 MGT-7 None 28. As per Companies Act, 2013, which type of company is exempt from having a statutory auditor? Private Company Section 8 Company One Person Company Producer Company None 29. A company can issue sweat equity shares to: Only directors Only employees Both employees and directors Only shareholders None 30. Under which section of the Companies Act, 2013 can a company voluntarily wind up its operations? Section 248 Section 271 Section 304 Section 349 None 31. The minimum lock-in period for promoters’ shares after an IPO is: 6 months 12 months 18 months 24 months None 32. Which of the following entities does not fall under SEBI's regulatory purview? Stock Exchanges Mutual Funds Banks Merchant Bankers None 33. FEMA is applicable to which of the following? Individuals residing in India Foreign nationals in India Companies registered in India All of the above None 34. Which of the following practices is not prohibited under the Competition Act? Predatory pricing Insider trading Cartel formation Abuse of dominant position None 35. Which section of the Competition Act, 2002 deals with anti-competitive agreements? Section 3 Section 4 Section 5 Section 6 None 36. The minimum default amount required to initiate insolvency proceedings under IBC is: ₹50,000 ₹1 lakh ₹5 lakh ₹10 lakh None 37. Which of the following is not a resolution professional under IBC? Chartered Accountant Cost Accountant Lawyer Business Consultant None 38. Under PMLA, financial institutions are required to maintain transaction records for a minimum of: 3 years 5 years 7 years 10 years None 39. Which of the following is considered an offense under PMLA? Structuring transactions to evade reporting Concealing ownership of assets Funneling money through shell companies All of the above None 40. Which of the following is NOT a type of share capital? Authorized capital Subscribed capital Overdraft capital Issued capital None 1 out of 4 Great job on taking the INCOC Test! We appreciate your interest in test. Look out for results and future opportunities. Stay Connected !! Your quiz time is about to finish. Few seconds left. Time's upYou cannot switch tabs while taking this quiz!You are not allowed to switch tabs violation has been recorded.you cannot minimize full screen mode!You are not allowed to minimize full screen while taking this quiz, violation has been recorded.Access denied! To begin the quiz, please grant this quiz access to your camera.Time is Up!Time is Up!
Welcome to your International Navodaya Chamber of Commerce (INCOC) Platform ! Subject: Corporate and Economic Laws Total Number of Question: 40 Time: 41 Minutes Please check your email after completion of test for result. All the best... Name Phone No Email State 1. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a company? Perpetual succession Unlimited liability Separate legal entity Transferability of shares None 2. What is the minimum number of members required to form a private company? 1 2 3 5 None 3. The primary objective of Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) is to: Maximize profits Promote social and environmental sustainability Reduce government taxes Increase shareholder dividends None 4. Which of the following companies is NOT required to appoint an independent director? Listed company Public company with paid-up share capital of ₹10 crore or more Private company with paid-up share capital of ₹50 crore Public company with turnover of ₹100 crore or more None 5. Who has the power to remove a company’s auditor before the completion of their term? Board of Directors Shareholders by passing a special resolution SEBI Registrar of Companies None 6. The doctrine of indoor management protects: The company against outsiders Outsiders dealing with the company The government The company's directors None 7. A company can be wound up due to its inability to pay debts when the unpaid amount exceeds: ₹1 lakh ₹10 lakh ₹25 lakh ₹1 crore None 8. Which of the following is NOT a ground for compulsory winding up of a company by NCLT? The company is unable to pay its debts The company has not filed financial statements for five consecutive years The company has failed to conduct a board meeting for one year The company's business is carried out in a fraudulent manner None 9. A company’s Board of Directors must hold at least how many meetings in a calendar year? 2 3 4 5 None 10. Which of the following cannot be issued at a discount? Shares Debentures Bonds Preference Shares None 11. The primary role of SEBI is to regulate: Mutual Funds Insurance Companies Banking Operations Foreign Direct Investment None 12. Which of the following securities is considered a derivative? Shares Mutual Funds Futures Contracts Fixed Deposits None 13. An IPO must be listed on stock exchanges within how many days of closure? 3 days 6 days 10 days 15 days None 14. Which entity is responsible for depository services in India? SEBI RBI NSDL and CDSL NCLT None 15. Which document is issued to the public before an IPO? Share Certificate Offer Letter Prospectus Articles of Association None 16. Which of the following transactions does NOT require SEBI approval? IPO launch Insider trading investigation Foreign exchange transactions Takeover of a listed company None 17. Under SEBI regulations, a company is considered ‘listed’ when it: Registers with MCA Obtains a SEBI license Lists its shares on a recognized stock exchange Issues a public notice None 18. The Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) hears appeals against decisions made by: RBI SEBI IRDAI NCLT None 19. The minimum application size for a retail investor in an IPO is: ₹10,000 ₹15,000 ₹20,000 ₹25,000 None 20. Which of the following does NOT qualify as a capital market instrument? Equity Shares Debentures Treasury Bills Bonds None 21. The Competition Act, 2002 is primarily aimed at preventing: Financial frauds Money laundering Monopolistic and restrictive trade practices Banking frauds None 22. Which of the following organizations enforces FEMA regulations? SEBI RBI MCA Competition Commission of India (CCI) None 23. The purpose of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) is to: Regulate stock exchanges Resolve financial distress of companies Monitor foreign exchange transactions Prevent insider trading None 24. Which of the following is NOT a function of the Enforcement Directorate (ED)? Investigating money laundering cases Regulating stock markets Enforcing FEMA laws Investigating foreign exchange violations None 25. Under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, the Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) has the power to: Issue orders for recall of unsafe goods Regulate stock market operations Approve foreign investments Impose corporate governance standards None 26. Which law deals with the legal framework for Non-Performing Assets (NPAs)? SARFAESI Act, 2002 FEMA, 1999 SEBI Act, 1992 Competition Act, 2002 None 27. The Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) is applicable to: Banks Financial institutions Intermediaries All of the above None 28. Which regulatory authority oversees economic competition in India? SEBI RBI CCI IRDAI None 29. Who can initiate proceedings under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code? Creditors Shareholders Government All of the above None 30. The Reserve Bank of India regulates foreign exchange transactions under: FEMA, 1999 FEMA, 1992 IBC, 2016 Companies Act, 2013 None 31. Which type of company must have at least one woman director? Every listed company Every public company with a paid-up share capital of ₹100 crore or more Every private company Both (a) and (b) None 32. Which form is required to be filed for the incorporation of a company under the Companies Act, 2013? INC-32 (SPICe) INC-22 AOC-4 MGT-7 None 33. A private company must have at least how many directors? 1 2 3 5 None 34. The quorum for a board meeting of a company with more than 6 directors is: 1/3rd of total directors or 2, whichever is higher 1/4th of total directors or 3, whichever is higher 2 directors only All directors must be present None 35. Which committee is mandatory for every listed company under SEBI (LODR) Regulations? Audit Committee Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) Committee Nomination and Remuneration Committee All of the above None 36. Which of the following is an objective of the Competition Act, 2002? Preventing anti-competitive agreements Regulating insider trading Controlling foreign exchange transactions Managing financial audits None 37. Under the IBC, 2016, the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP) must be completed within: 90 days 180 days (extendable to 330 days) 1 year 2 years None 38. Which of the following transactions is NOT covered under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002? Fraudulent stock trading Smuggling and corruption Drug trafficking Tax evasion None 39. Which tribunal adjudicates disputes related to Competition Law in India? National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) Competition Commission of India (CCI) National Green Tribunal (NGT) None 40. Under FEMA, 1999, which entity is authorized to regulate foreign exchange transactions? SEBI RBI MCA Ministry of Finance None 1 out of 4 Great job on taking the INCOC Test! We appreciate your interest in test. Look out for results and future opportunities. Stay Connected !! Your quiz time is about to finish. Few seconds left. Time's upYou cannot switch tabs while taking this quiz!You are not allowed to switch tabs violation has been recorded.you cannot minimize full screen mode!You are not allowed to minimize full screen while taking this quiz, violation has been recorded.Access denied! To begin the quiz, please grant this quiz access to your camera.Time is Up!Time is Up!
Welcome to your International Navodaya Chamber of Commerce (INCOC) Platform ! Subject: Corporate and Economic Laws Total Number of Question: 40 Time: 41 Minutes Please check your email after completion of test for result. All the best... Name Phone No Email State 1. Which of the following statements about a Private Limited Compa It can invite the public to subscribe to its shares It must have a minimum of 7 members It has restrictions on share transferability It cannot issue preference shares None 2. Which section of the Companies Act, 2013 deals with Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR)? Section 125 Section 135 Section 145 Section 155 None 3. The maximum tenure of a Managing Director as per the Companie 3 years 5 years 7 years 10 years None 4. Which of the following is NOT a type of company as per the Comp Producer Company Section 8 Company Banking Company Chartered Company None 5. Which of the following documents is required for the incorporation Share Certificate Memorandum of Association Debenture Trust Deed Dividend Declaration Form None 6. The statutory meeting of a company must be held within: 3 months of incorporation 6 months of incorporation 9 months of incorporation 12 months of incorporation None 7. Which type of share gives voting rights to its holder? Preference Share Equity Share Debenture Convertible Bond None 8. What is the minimum paid-up capital required for a public compa ₹50,000 ₹1 lakh ₹5 lakh No minimum requirement None 9. Which financial statement provides details about a company’s financial position at a particular point in time? Balance Sheet Income Statement Cash Flow Statement Statement of Changes in Equity1 None 10. A company that fails to repay deposits on time may face penalties under RBI Act, 1934 SEBI Act, 1992 Companies Act, 2013 FEMA, 1999 None 11. Which of the following is NOT a regulatory function of SEBI? Registration of mutual funds Regulation of stock exchanges Issuance of currency notes Prohibition of insider trading None 12. Which of the following is NOT a type of mutual fund? Equity Fund Debenture Fund Balanced Fund Index Fund None 13. Under SEBI regulations, an insider is a person who: Works in a brokerage firm Holds confidential price-sensitive information Is a retail investor Only deals in commodities None 14. Who is responsible for issuing and regulating debentures? SEBI RBI NCLT MCA None 15. Which of the following is a secondary market instrument? IPO Rights Issue Debentures Trading of existing shares on stock exchanges None 16. Which of the following transactions is NOT covered under FEMA, 1999? Foreign investment Export of goods Domestic bank transactions Borrowing from foreign sources None 17. The Competition Commission of India (CCI) regulates: Mergers and Acquisitions Foreign Exchange Transactions Mutual Funds Banking Operations None 18. The purpose of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) is to: Regulate financial markets Provide a resolution mechanism for distressed companies Control inflation Monitor banking operations None 19. Which of the following entities is responsible for controlling Money Laundering activities in India? SEBI RBI Enforcement Directorate (ED) Competition Commission of India None 20. Under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, a complaint can be filed in the District Commission for cases involving amounts up to: ₹10 lakh ₹50 lakh ₹1 crore ₹5 crore None 21. The primary objective of the SARFAESI Act, 2002 is to: Regulate banking transactions Recover non-performing assets (NPAs) Prevent insider trading Monitor money laundering None 22. Which tribunal hears appeals under the IBC? Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) Competition Appellate Tribunal (COMPAT) Debt Recovery Tribunal (DRT) None 23. Which of the following is NOT considered a money laundering offense? Smuggling Hawala Transactions Payment of GST Terrorist Financing None 24. Who is responsible for enforcing the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999? SEBI RBI MCA NCLT None 25. Which of the following acts regulate financial frauds in India? SEBI Act, 1992 Companies Act, 2013 Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 All of the above None 26. Which authority is responsible for registering companies in India? SEBI RBI Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA) NCLT None 27. Which of the following is NOT a type of resolution under the Companies Act, 2013? Ordinary Resolution Special Resolution Board Resolution Corporate Resolution None 28. Under the Companies Act, 2013, which form of capital represents the maximum amount a company is allowed to raise? Authorized Capital Issued Capital Subscribed Capital Paid-up Capital None 29. Which type of company is formed to promote commerce, art, science, sports, education, or research, without the intention of earning a profit? Private Limited Company Public Limited Company Section 8 Company Government Company None 30. Who appoints the first directors of a company? Shareholders Board of Directors Promoters Registrar of Companies None 31. Which authority is responsible for protecting investors in the securities market? SEBI RBI MCA NCLT None 32. Which of the following is an example of a money market instrument? Equity Shares Debentures Treasury Bills Mutual Funds None 33. What is the full form of IPO in the stock market? Initial Private Offering Indian Public Offer Initial Public Offering Institutional Public Order None 34. What does the term "Insider Trading" refer to? Trading securities based on publicly available information Trading securities based on non-public price-sensitive information Trading on the stock exchange by brokers None of the above None 35. The minimum public shareholding requirement for a listed company in India is 10% 25% 30% 50% None 36. The Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002 is administered by SEBI RBI Enforcement Directorate (ED) NCLT None 37. The FEMA Act, 1999 regulates: Domestic trade transactions Foreign exchange transactions Banking operations Mutual funds None 38. Which law governs competition and prohibits anti-competitive practices in India? The Companies Act, 2013 The Competition Act, 2002 The FEMA Act,1999 The SEBI Act, 1992 None 39. Who approves the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Plan under IBC? NCLT SEBI MCA Committee of Creditors (CoC) None 40. Which of the following authorities has the power to investigate unfair trade practices under the Competition Act, 2002? SEBI CCI RBI NCLT None 1 out of 4 Great job on taking the INCOC Test! We appreciate your interest in test. Look out for results and future opportunities. Stay Connected !! Your quiz time is about to finish. Few seconds left. 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