Welcome to your International Navodaya Chamber of Commerce (INCOC) Platform ! Subject: Company Law Total Number of Question: 40 Time: 41 Minutes Please check your email after completion of test for result. All the best... Name Phone No Email State 1. A company that does not carry out any business activity for two consecutive financial years is termed as a: Defunct Company Dormant Company Private Limited Company Wound-up Company None 2. The maximum number of directors a company can have without seeking approval from the government is: 10 12 15 20 None 3. The liability of members in a company limited by guarantee is limited to: The amount they have agreed to contribute in case of winding up The amount unpaid on their shares The company’s total debt None 4. Which of the following meetings is NOT mandatory for a private company? Annual General Meeting Board Meetings Extraordinary General Meeting Statutory Meeting None 5. The quorum for a General Meeting in a private company with less than 30 members is: 1 member 2 member 3 member 5 member None 6. The tenure of a statutory auditor of a private company cannot exceed: 3 years 5 years 10 years 15 years None 7. The Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) Committee is mandatory for companies having a net profit of at least: ₹1 crore ₹5 crore ₹10 crore ₹100 crore None 8. Which document governs the internal management of a company? Memorandum of Association Articles of Association Prospectus Financial Statements None 9. A company must file its financial statements with the Registrar of Companies within: 30 days from the end of the financial year 60 days from the end of the financial year 120 days from the AGM 180 days from the AGM None 10. The appointment of a director in a public company is governed by: The Board of Directors Shareholders in a General Meeting The Ministry of Corporate Affairs None 11. Who among the following cannot be appointed as an auditor of a company? A qualified Chartered Accountant A qualified Chartered Accountant A Government auditor None 12. A debenture holder is considered a: Shareholder Creditor Owner Director None 13. A company can issue preference shares with a maximum redemption period of: 10 years 15 years 20 years 25 years None 14. The Director Identification Number (DIN) is issued by: SEBI Ministry of Corporate Affairs Reserve Bank of India NCLT None 15. Which of the following resolutions is required to change a company's name? Ordinary Resolution Special Resolution Board Resolution None 16. The Companies Act, 2013 applies to: Only private companies Only public companies All companies incorporated in India Only listed companies None 17. The person who signs the Memorandum of Association at the time of incorporation is called a: Director Promoter Shareholder Auditor None 18. The maximum period for which a private company can be granted exemption from holding an AGM is: 6 months 9 months 12 months No exemption is allowed None 19. Which of the following transactions requires shareholder approval through a special resolution? Appointment of a Director Issue of Bonus Shares Sale of the whole or substantially the whole of the company’s undertaking Appointment of a Company Secretary None 20. The maximum number of shareholders in a private company is: 50 100 150 200 None 21. Which document must be filed with the ROC for increasing the authorized capital of a company? MGT-7 SH-7 DIR-12 None 22. In which case is an Extraordinary General Meeting (EGM) mandatory? For declaring dividends For appointing a Company Secretary For approving mergers and acquisitions For holding Board Meetings None 23. The minimum paid-up capital required for a public company is: ₹1 lakh ₹5 lakh ₹10 lakh No minimum requirement None 24. The penalty for non-compliance with CSR provisions under the Companies Act, 2013 is: ₹50,000 ₹1 lakh ₹10 lakh ₹25 lakh None 25. Which authority grants approval for the compounding of offences under the Companies Act? MCA SEBI RBI NCLT None 26. The audit report of a listed company must be signed by: The Board of Directors The Company Secretary The Company Secretary The Chief Financial Officer None 27. A One Person Company (OPC) must have a nominee who will: Act as the company’s CEO Take over in case of the member’s death or incapacity Be responsible for financial management Approve board decisions None 28. Approve board decisions 7 days 15 days 30 days 60 days None 29. A company secretary must be appointed in: Every listed company Every private company Every one-person company None 30. Which form is used for Director KYC compliance? DIR-3 DIR-4 DIR-6 DIR-3 KYC None 31. The penalty for failing to file annual financial statements with the ROC within the prescribed time is: ₹10,000 per day ₹50,000 per day ₹1,00,000 fixed penalty ₹10,000 plus ₹100 per day of default None 32. The minimum number of board meetings a private company must hold in a calendar year is: 2 3 4 6 None 33. A resolution requiring a simple majority for approval is called a: Special Resolution Ordinary Resolution Board Resolution None 34. Which of the following statements about a Private Company is FALSE? It cannot issue shares to the public It must have at least two members It must have at least two members None 35. A company can remove a director before the expiry of their term by passing: An Ordinary Resolution A Special Resolution A Board Resolution A Resolution with Special Notice None 36. The legal status of a company is that of a: Proprietorship Partnership Separate legal entity Department of the government None 37. A company must file an allotment return with the ROC within how many days of issuing new shares? 15 days 30 days 45 days 60 days None 38. The "Doctrine of Indoor Management" protects: Outsiders dealing with the company Directors from legal action Shareholders from liabilities Government authorities overseeing companies None 39. If a company fails to commence business within the prescribed time after incorporation, the ROC can: Impose a fine of ₹5 lakh Strike off the company’s name from the register Convert it into a public company Transfer ownership to the government None 40. The concept of "Perpetual Succession" in company law means that: The company continues to exist even if shareholders change The company must renew its incorporation every year The company is dissolved after 10 years The company ceases to exist upon the death of its founder None 1 out of 4 Great job on taking the INCOC Test! We appreciate your interest in test. Look out for results and future opportunities. 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Welcome to your International Navodaya Chamber of Commerce (INCOC) Platform ! Subject: Company Law Total Number of Question: 40 Time: 41 Minutes Please check your email after completion of test for result. All the best... Name Phone No Email State 1. A company incorporated outside India but having a place of business in India is known as: Foreign Company Multinational Company Global Company Overseas Entity None 2. The penalty for non-appointment of a Company Secretary in a company where it is mandatory can be imposed on: The Board of Directors only The Managing Director only The company and every officer in default The shareholders None 3. Which of the following is considered an essential characteristic of a company? Voluntary association Perpetual succession Common seal All of the above None 4. The first directors of a company are appointed by: Shareholders in the first AGM Registrar of Companies Promoters of the company Ministry of Corporate Affairs None 5. A private company can commence business: Only after obtaining a business commencement certificate Only after allotment of shares Immediately after incorporation Only after holding an AGM None 6. Which of the following resolutions is required to alter the Memorandum of Association? Board Resolution Ordinary Resolution Special Resolution Shareholders’ Resolution None 7. The time limit for issuing share certificates after the allotment of shares is: 15 days 30 days 60 days 90 days None 8. Which of the following companies is required to maintain an Audit Committee? Every private company Every listed company Every one-person company Every partnership firm None 9. The Register of Members of a company is maintained at: The company’s factory The company’s registered office The Registrar of Companies office The head office of SEBI None 10. The maximum number of members in an LLP is: 20 500 100 No limit None 11. Who has the power to extend the financial year of a company beyond 12 months? Board of Directors Ministry of Corporate Affairs Registrar of Companies National Company Law Tribunal None 12. Which form is used for filing the annual return of a company? MGT-1 MGT-7 AOC-4 DIR-12 None 13. The time period for filing a special resolution with the Registrar of Companies is: 7 days 15 days 30 days 60 days None 14. Which of the following is a primary function of the Articles of Association? Define the company's objectives Outline the internal management rules Regulate financial reporting Specify taxation rules None 15. The removal of an auditor before the expiry of his term requires approval from: Shareholders Board of Directors Tribunal (NCLT) Registrar of Companies None 16. Which of the following committees is responsible for risk management in listed companies? Audit Committee Risk Management Committee CSR Committee Nomination and Remuneration Committee None 17. A special resolution is passed when it is approved by at least: 51% of members present 67% of members present 75% of members present 90% of members present None 18. Which of the following statements is true regarding the statutory audit of a company? It is optional for private companies It is mandatory for all companies It is required only for listed companies It is only required when a company makes a profit None 19. The term "Red Herring Prospectus" is associated with: Rights Issue Private Placement Initial Public Offering (IPO) Bonus Issue None 20. A company must hold its first Board Meeting within how many days of incorporation? 15 days 30 days 60 days 90 days None 21. The appointment of a Managing Director in a company requires approval from: Board of Directors Shareholders at AGM Ministry of Corporate Affairs SEBI None 22. Which of the following companies is required to have a Nomination and Remuneration Committee? Every listed company Every one-person company Every small company Every private company None 23. A company that is created for a charitable purpose is known as: Private Company Public Limited Company Section 8 Company Producer Company None 24. The liability of a shareholder in a company limited by shares is: Unlimited Limited to the unpaid amount on shares held Limited to company’s total assets Defined by the Board of Directors None 25. The minutes of a Board Meeting must be signed by: The Company Secretary The Chairman of the meeting Any shareholder The Registrar of Companies None 26. A company can declare dividends only if it has: Cash reserves Paid-up capital Sufficient profits Board approval None 27. The official website of the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA) in India is: www.mcaindia.com www.mca.gov.in www.companylaw.org www.sebi.gov.in None 28. Which of the following companies must appoint an internal auditor? All companies Listed companies and certain specified public companies Only private companies Sole proprietorship firms None 29. A company limited by shares can issue: Equity Shares Preference Shares Debentures All of the above None 30. Which of the following meetings is conducted only once in a company’s lifetime? Annual General Meeting Extraordinary General Meeting Statutory Meeting Board Meeting None 31. The minimum number of directors required for a private company is: 1 2 3 5 None 32. A One Person Company (OPC) must mandatorily convert into a private or public company if its paid-up share capital exceeds: ₹25 lakh ₹50 lakh ₹75 lakh ₹2 crore None 33. The maximum tenure of an independent director in a company is: 3 years 5 years 10 years 12 years None 34. A company can issue sweat equity shares to its employees or directors after how many months from its incorporation? 3 months 6 months 9 months 12 months None 35. In the event of a company's liquidation, who is paid first? Equity shareholders Preference shareholders Secured creditors Unsecured creditors None 36. The declaration of dividends is the responsibility of: The Board of Directors The Shareholders at the AGM The Registrar of Companies SEBI None 37. The minimum subscription for a public issue of shares is: 25% of the issue size 50% of the issue size 75% of the issue size 90% of the issue size None 38. A resolution requiring special notice must be given to the company at least how many days before the meeting? 7 days 14 days 21 days 30 days None 39. The statutory register of a company includes: Register of Members Register of Directors Register of Charges All of the above None 40. Which authority has the power to remove the name of a company from the Register of Companies? SEBI National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) Registrar of Companies (ROC) Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA) None 1 out of 4 Great job on taking the INCOC Test! We appreciate your interest in test. 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Welcome to your International Navodaya Chamber of Commerce (INCOC) Platform ! Subject: Company Law Total Number of Question: 40 Time: 41 Minutes Please check your email after completion of test for result. All the best... Name Phone No Email State 1. The primary legislation governing companies in India is: The Companies Act, 1956 The Companies Act, 2013 The SEBI Act, 1992 The Partnership Act, 1932 None 2. The maximum number of shareholders in a private company is: 50 100 200 300 None 3. A company is said to be a ‘going concern’ if: It is making profits It continues to exist in the foreseeable future It does not declare bankruptcy It pays dividends regularly None 4. Which of the following companies is required to appoint a Company Secretary? A private company with paid-up capital of ₹5 crores A public company with paid-up capital of ₹10 crores A listed company only A partnership firm None 5. The liability of members in a company limited by guarantee is: Limited to unpaid share capital Limited to the amount guaranteed Unlimited Fixed by directors None 6. The minimum number of directors required in a private company is: One Two Three Five None 7. The document inviting the public to subscribe for shares or debentures is called: Memorandum of Association Articles of Association Prospectus Share Certificate None 8. A company’s financial statements must be signed by: The CEO only At least two directors, including the managing director The Company Secretary only The Shareholders None 9. An independent director must not have any pecuniary relationship with: The company The company’s holding or subsidiary The promoters All of the above None 10. The maximum number of partners in a Limited Liability Partnership (LLP) is: 10 20 52 No limit None 11. A director who is absent from Board meetings for ____ months without permission may be removed. 3 months 6 months 9 months 12 months None 12. The registered office of a company must be declared within how many days of incorporation? 15 days 30 days 60 days 90 days None 13. Which company must compulsorily list its shares on a recognized stock exchange? Private Company One Person Company Public Listed Company Government Company None 14. Who has the power to remove a director before the expiry of his term? Shareholders by passing an Ordinary Resolution Board of Directors Registrar of Companies Ministry of Corporate Affairs None 15. The statutory auditor of a company holds office for a term of: 1 year 2 year 5 year 10 year None 16. The financial year of a company must be from: 1st April to 31st March 1st January to 31st December 1st July to 30th June Any period as decided by the Board None 17. The National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) was established under which Companies Act? Companies Act, 1956 Companies Act, 2013 Companies Act, 2000 Companies Act, 1991 None 18. A dormant company is a company that: Has not carried out any business for two consecutive financial years Is in liquidation Is under investigation Has defaulted in debt payments None 19. Which form is filed for appointment of a director? DIR-1 DIR-2 DIR-3 DIR-12 None 20. Which committee is responsible for implementing Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR)? Audit Committee CSR Committee Risk Management Committee Nomination and Remuneration Committee None 21. The buyback of shares cannot exceed what percentage of paid-up capital and free reserves? 10% 15% 25% 50% None 22. Which of the following companies is required to file a Secretarial Audit Report? Every listed company Every public company with paid-up capital of ₹50 crores or more Every public company with turnover of ₹250 crores or more All of the above None 23. The penalty for non-compliance with CSR provisions under the Companies Act, 2013 is: ₹25,000 ₹50,000 ₹1 Lakh to ₹25 Lakhs No penalty None 24. In which year was the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) established? 2000 2013 2016 2020 None 25. A resolution requiring a 75% majority of shareholders is called: Ordinary Resolution Special Resolution Board Resolution Directors’ Resolution None 26. The Companies Act, 2013 contains how many schedules? 5 7 10 12 None 27. A charge on company assets must be registered within how many days? 7 days 30 days 60 days 90 days None 28. Which form is used to apply for a Director Identification Number (DIN)? DIR-1 DIR-2 DIR-3 DIR-4 None 29. Which of the following is not a mode of winding up a company? Voluntary winding up Compulsory winding up by the tribunal Automatic winding up Winding up under the Insolvency None 30. The approval of which regulatory authority is required for a merger between two listed companies? SEBI MCA RBI NCLT None 31. Which document defines the objectives and scope of a company's operations? Articles of Association Memorandum of Association Prospectus Share Certificate None 32. Which of the following is not a feature of a private company? Restriction on transfer of shares Minimum of two members No limit on the number of members Cannot issue shares to the public None 33. The minimum paid-up capital required for forming a private company is: ₹1 Lakh ₹5 Lakh ₹10 Lakh No minimum requirement None 34. Under the Companies Act, 2013, the minimum number of members required to form a public company is: 2 3 5 7 None 35. Which of the following is a mode of alteration of Articles of Association? By passing an Ordinary Resolution By passing a Special Resolution By obtaining approval from the Registrar of Companies By a decision of the Board of Directors None 36. A company that fails to file its annual returns for two consecutive years is considered: Dormant Wound up Defunct Liquidated None 37. The statutory meeting of a public company must be held within how many months of incorporation? 3 months 6 months 9 months 12 months None 38. Which authority has the power to grant approval for the name of a new company? SEBI Registrar of Companies (ROC) Ministry of Finance Reserve Bank of India None 39. In the case of a listed company, what percentage of directors must be independent? 25% 33% 50% 75% None 40. The quorum for a Board Meeting in a company with more than 5 directors is: 2 directors 3 directors 1/3rd of the total strength or 2 directors, whichever is higher 1/4th of the total strength or 3 directors, whichever is higher None 1 out of 4 Great job on taking the INCOC Test! We appreciate your interest in test. Look out for results and future opportunities. Stay Connected !! Your quiz time is about to finish. Few seconds left. 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Welcome to your International Navodaya Chamber of Commerce (INCOC) Platform ! Subject: Company Law Total Number of Question: 40 Time: 41 Minutes Please check your email after completion of test for result. All the best... Name Phone No Email State 1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a company? Separate Legal Entity Perpetual Succession Unlimited Liability Transferability of Shares None 2. A private company must have a minimum of how many members? One Two Three Seven None 3. The Companies Act, 2013, applies to which of the following entities? Banking Companies Insurance Companies Government Companies All of the above None 4. The maximum number of members in a private company is: 50 100 200 400 None 5. Which document defines the scope of operations and objectives of a company? Articles of Association Memorandum of Association Prospectus Share Certificate None 6. A public company must have a minimum of how many directors? One Two Three Four None 7. The concept of One Person Company (OPC) was introduced in which Companies Act? Companies Act, 1956 Companies Act, 2013 Companies Act, 1991 Companies Act, 2000 None 8. Which section of the Companies Act, 2013 deals with the incorporation of a company? Section 2 Section 3 Section 4 Section 5 None 9. The first meeting of the Board of Directors must be held within how many days of incorporation? 15 days 30 days 60 days 90 days None 10. Which of the following is an essential feature of a private company? No restriction on transfer of shares No minimum paid-up capital requirement No need to hold an annual general meeting No need to have directors None 11. Which type of company can issue a prospectus? Private Company Public Company One Person Company None of the above None 12. The liability of shareholders in a company limited by shares is limited to: The amount they have agreed to contribute The total assets of the company Double the face value of shares None of the above None 13. The minimum number of members required to form a public company is: One Two Three Seven None 14. The term ‘quorum’ in company law refers to: Minimum number of members required to hold a meeting Maximum number of members present in a meeting A resolution passed by a company A type of committee in a company None 15. The registered office of a company must be declared within how many days of incorporation? 7 days 15 days 30 days 60 days None 16. Which of the following is a statutory book maintained by a company? Minutes Book Shareholders' Personal Ledger Balance Sheet Tax Register None 17. A director in a company must be appointed by: The Central Government The Board of Directors Shareholders in a general meeting Any of the above None 18. The Articles of Association (AOA) primarily deal with: The internal management of the company The objectives of the company The liability of the company The rights of creditors None 19. A company is considered a separate legal entity as per which landmark case? Solomon v. Solomon & Co. Ashbury Railway Carriage & Iron Co. Ltd v. Riche Salomon v. Salomon & Co. Ltd. Foss v. Harbottle None 20. A company can change its name with the approval of: Board of Directors Central Government Shareholders by special resolution Any director of the company None 21. Which of the following is not a type of share capital? Authorized Capital Issued Capital Working Capital Subscribed Capital None 22. The statutory auditors of a company are appointed by: Board of Directors Shareholders at the AGM Company Secretary Registrar of Companies None 23. A company's Annual General Meeting (AGM) must be held within how many months of the end of the financial year? 3 months 6 months 9 months 12 months None 24. In case of default in holding an AGM, which authority has the power to call the meeting? Board of Directors Company Secretary Tribunal (NCLT) Shareholders None 25. The minimum number of directors required in a One Person Company (OPC) is: One Two Three Five None 26. A company’s prospectus must be filed with: SEBI Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA) Registrar of Companies (ROC) Stock Exchange None 27. The minimum paid-up capital requirement for a public company is: ₹1 Lakh ₹5 Lakhs ₹10 Lakhs No minimum requirement None 28. A company can issue shares at a discount under which condition? It is permitted under the Articles of Association SEBI grants permission Shares cannot be issued at a discount With Board approval None 29. The primary purpose of a Director’s Report is to: Disclose financial information Provide an overview of company operations Inform shareholders about future strategies All of the above None 30. The term "sweat equity shares" refers to: Shares issued for cash consideration Shares issued at a premium Shares issued to employees for their contribution contribution d) Shares None 31. The first financial year of a company can be for a period of: 6 months 9 months Maximum 15 months Maximum 18 months None 32. Which committee of the Board of Directors deals with financial reporting and audit matters? Nomination and Remuneration Committee Audit Committee Risk Management Committee Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) Committee None 33. Which of the following is a compulsory ground for winding up a company? The company is in financial loss The company is unable to pay debts The shareholders disagree on management issues The company has no assets None 34. The maximum number of directors a private company can have is: 10 15 20 No limit None 35. A charge created by a company on its assets must be registered with the: SEBI Registrar of Companies (ROC) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Stock Exchange None 36. A company secretary must be appointed in: All companies Only public companies with paid-up capital of ₹10 crores or more Private companies with a turnover of ₹100 crores Sole Proprietorship firms None 37. The resignation of a director becomes effective from: The date mentioned in the resignation letter The date of acceptance by the Board The date of filing with the ROC The date of intimation to shareholders None 38. A listed company must have at least what percentage of independent directors? 25% 33% 50% No mandatory requirement None 39. The maximum tenure of an independent director in a listed company is: 3 years 5 years 10 years 15 years None 40. Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) is mandatory for companies having a net profit of at least: ₹1 crore ₹5 crore ₹10 crore ₹20 crore None 1 out of 4 Great job on taking the INCOC Test! We appreciate your interest in test. Look out for results and future opportunities. Stay Connected !! Your quiz time is about to finish. Few seconds left. 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Welcome to your International Navodaya Chamber of Commerce (INCOC) Platform ! Subject: Jurisprudence, Interpretation, and General Laws (ICSI). Total Number of Question: 40 Time: 41 Minutes Please check your email after completion of test for result. All the best... Name Phone No Email State 1. Which of the following is NOT a source of law? Legislation Customs Executive Orders Fictional Stories None 2. The term "Stare Decisis" refers to: Let the buyer beware The thing speaks for itself Let the decision stand No one can be a judge in their own case None 3. "Ubi Jus Ibi Remedium" means No one can be punished twice for the same offense Justice delayed is justice denied Where there is a right, there is a remedy An agreement without consideration is void None 4. A void contract is: Illegal and punishable Enforceable in court Not enforceable by law Binding on both parties None 5. What is the primary objective of criminal law? To resolve disputes between individuals To punish offenders and maintain law and order To protect contractual rights To regulate commerce None 6. Which part of the Constitution deals with Directive Principles of State Policy? Part I Part III Part IV Part V None 7. Which of the following is a fundamental duty under the Indian Constitution? Right to work To protect public property Right to freedom of speech Right to constitutional remedies None 8. The "Doctrine of Basic Structure" was laid down in which landmark case Golaknath Case Kesavananda Bharati Case Maneka Gandhi Case Minerva Mills Case None 9. Under Article 368, the power to amend the Constitution lies with: The Supreme Court The President The Parliament The Prime Minister None 10. Which of the following is NOT a writ under the Indian Constitution? Habeas Corpus Mandamus Certiorari Prima Facie None 11. Under the Indian Contract Act, a minor’s agreement is: Valid Void Voidable Illegal None 12. In case of breach of contract, the affected party can claim: Damages Specific Performance Injunction All of the above None 13. A private company must have a minimum of: One director Two directors Three directors Five directors None 14. A company is said to be "limited by shares" when: It cannot issue shares The liability of shareholders is limited to the unpaid value of shares Its shares cannot be transferred It is a government-owned company None 15. In case of breach of contract, the affected party can claim: Damages Specific Performance Injunction All of the above None 16. Which of the following is NOT a bailable offense? Theft Murder Public Nuisance Defamation None 17. The death penalty is awarded in India under which law? Indian Penal Code Criminal Procedure Code Evidence Act Constitution of India None 18. What is the punishment for perjury under IPC? Fine only Imprisonment up to 1 year Imprisonment up to 7 years No punishment None 19. Which of the following offenses does NOT require mens rea? Theft Strict Liability Offenses Cheating Murder None 20. What is the age of criminal responsibility under IPC? 10 years 12 years 14 years 18 years None 21. Which of the following laws regulates environmental protection in India? Environment Protection Act, 1986 Water Act, 1974 Air Act, 1981 All of the above None 22. The Right to Information Act, 2005 provides information to citizens from: Private bodies Government authorities Foreign organizations Individuals None 23. Under the Consumer Protection Act, a complaint can be filed for: Defective goods Deficiency in service Unfair trade practices All of the above None 24. Who appoints the Lokpal in India? President of India Prime Minister Chief Justice of India A committee including the Prime Minister, Speaker, and CJI None 25. The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 was based on: UNCITRAL Model Law Indian Penal Code Constitution of India Indian Contract Act None 26. The doctrine of "Noscitur a sociis" means: A word is known by the company it keeps The express mention of one excludes others The later law prevails over the earlier one The law does not concern itself with trifles None 27. Which of the following is NOT a fundamental right? Right to equality Right to property Right to freedom Right to constitutional remedies None 28. The right to freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a) is subject to reasonable restrictions under: Article 20 Article 21 Article 19(2) Article 32 None 29. What is the maximum time limit to file an appeal under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019? 15 days 30 days 45 days 60 days None 30. Which of the following is NOT a type of alternative dispute resolution (ADR)? Arbitration Mediation Litigation Conciliation None 31. Who appoints the Chief Justice of India? Prime Minister of India President of India Parliament of India Chief Justice of Supreme Court None 32. Which law governs negotiable instruments in India? Indian Contract Act, 1872 Companies Act, 2013 Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 Banking Regulation Act, 1949 None 33. Which of the following writs is issued to a lower court or tribunal to transfer a case to a higher court? Habeas Corpus Mandamus Certiorari Prohibition None 34. In case of conflict between Central and State law on a subject in the Concurrent List, which law prevails? State Law Central Law The one passed earlier The law with a higher penalty None 35. Which of the following is NOT covered under the Indian Penal Code (IPC)? Civil wrongs Murder Cheating Criminal breach of trust None 36. Which authority is responsible for implementing the Right to Information Act, 2005? Lokpal Central Information Commission Supreme Court NITI Aayog None 37. Which law governs cybercrimes in India? Indian Penal Code, 1860 Information Technology Act, 2000 Competition Act, 2002 Contract Act, 1872 None 38. Under which doctrine can a person not delegate a duty assigned to them? Nemo judex in causa sua Delegatus non potest delegare Res ipsa loquitur In pari delicto None 39. What is the limitation period for filing an appeal under the Limitation Act, 1963? 30 days 60 days 90 days It depends on the type of case None 40. The doctrine of "Res Judicata" means: A matter already judged cannot be re-litigated No person shall be a judge in their own case An agreement without consideration is void Law does not concern itself with trifles None 1 out of 4 Great job on taking the INCOC Test! We appreciate your interest in test. Look out for results and future opportunities. Stay Connected !! Your quiz time is about to finish. Few seconds left. Time's upYou cannot switch tabs while taking this quiz!You are not allowed to switch tabs violation has been recorded.you cannot minimize full screen mode!You are not allowed to minimize full screen while taking this quiz, violation has been recorded.Access denied! 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Welcome to your International Navodaya Chamber of Commerce (INCOC) Platform ! Subject: Jurisprudence, Interpretation, and General Laws (ICSI). Total Number of Question: 40 Time: 41 Minutes Please check your email after completion of test for result. All the best... Name Phone No Email State 1. Which legal maxim means "An act does not make a person guilty unless there is criminal intent"? Res Judicata Actus Non Facit Reum Nisi Mens Sit Rea Ubi Jus Ibi Remedium Audi Alteram Partem None 2. Which of the following is an example of substantive law? Code of Civil Procedure Contract Act, 1872 Criminal Procedure Code Indian Evidence Act None 3. Which legal doctrine prevents a person from denying a fact that has already been established? Doctrine of Res Judicata Doctrine of Estoppel Doctrine of Stare Decisis Doctrine of Severability None 4. Which of the following is NOT a type of legal remedy? Damages Specific Performance Injunction Arbitration None 5. "Nemo Debet Esse Judex in Propria Causa" means: No one can be a judge in his own case No person should be punished twice for the same offense No one should be denied justice A matter already judged cannot be re-litigated None 6. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with citizenship? Part I Part II Part III Part IV None 7. Which constitutional amendment introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India? 97th Amendment 100th Amendment 101th Amendment 103rd Amendment None 8. The power of the President to dissolve the Lok Sabha is mentioned in: Article 74 Article 75 Article 83 Article 85 None 9. Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India? The President The Prime Minister The Chief Justice of India The Governor of the State None 10. The Supreme Court of India was established under which Act? Indian Independence Act, 1947 Government of India Act, 1935 Constitution of India, 1950 Regulating Act, 1773 None 11. The Indian Contract Act, 1872 applies to: Only oral contracts Only written contracts Both oral and written contracts Contracts approved by a court None 12. Which section of the Indian Contract Act deals with coercion? Section 14 Section 15 Section 16 Section 17 None 13. A contract is discharged by which of the following methods? Performance Agreement Breach All of the above None 14. Which of the following statements about a private company is incorrect? It restricts the right to transfer shares It can have up to 200 members It can issue shares to the public It requires a minimum of two directors None 15. Which of the following documents is known as the "Charter of a Company"? Articles of Association Memorandum of Association Prospectus Share Certificate None 16. Which section of the IPC deals with criminal conspiracy? Section 120A Section 124A Section 141 Section 153A None 17. Which of the following is an inchoate offense? Theft Attempt to murder Assault Defamation None 18. What is the punishment for sedition under Section 124A of IPC? 3 years imprisonment 5 years imprisonment Life imprisonment Death penalty None 19. Which of the following is a valid defense in criminal law? Mistake of law Intoxication Self-defense Ignorance of law None 20. Which law governs preventive detention in India? The Indian Penal Code The Criminal Procedure Code The Preventive Detention Act, 1950 The Constitution of India None 21. The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 covers: Only goods Only services Both goods and services Neither goods nor services None 22. Which tribunal handles disputes related to environmental issues? National Company Law Tribunal National Green Tribunal Income Tax Appellate Tribunal Consumer Disputes Redressal Forum None 23. Under the Right to Information Act, 2005, a Public Information Officer must respond within: 15 days 30 days 45 days 60 days None 24. Which of the following acts regulates arbitration in India? Arbitration Act, 1940 Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 Companies Act, 2013 Indian Contract Act, 1872 None 25. Under the Negotiable Instruments Act, dishonor of a cheque due to insufficient funds is punishable with imprisonment up to: 3 months 6 months 1 year 2 year None 26. Which of the following is an essential element of a valid contract? Free consent Lawful object Competent parties All of the above None 27. The power to make laws on subjects in the Union List is given to: State Legislature Parliament Both State and Central Government President of India None 28. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides the right to constitutional remedies? Article 14 Article 21 Article 32 Article 44 None 29. What is the maximum number of members allowed in a private company? 50 100 150 200 None 30. The Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 applies to: Cheques Promissory Notes Bills of Exchange All of the above None 31. Which of the following is NOT an alternative dispute resolution method? Mediation Arbitration Litigation Conciliation None 32. Which writ is issued to release a person who has been unlawfully detained? Habeas Corpus Mandamus Certiorari Quo Warranto None 33. The power of judicial review is derived from: The Constitution of India Parliament The Supreme Court's discretion The President's executive powers None 34. Which section of the Indian Contract Act defines a valid contract? Section 2(e) Section 10 Section 14 Section 17 None 35. Under which Act is cybercrime regulated in India? Information Technology Act, 2000 Indian Penal Code, 1860 Evidence Act, 1872 Consumer Protection Act, 2019 None 36. Which of the following is NOT a type of partnership under the Indian Partnership Act, 1932? General Partnership Limited Partnership Unlimited Partnership Limited Liability Partnership (LLP) None 37. The term "Ultra Vires" means: Beyond the powers Within the powers Against the contract A legal contract None 38. Which of the following is NOT a fundamental right under the Indian Constitution? Right to Education Right to Equality Right to Vote Right to Freedom None 39. Which of the following bodies is responsible for regulating foreign exchange in India? SEBI RBI Ministry of Finance NITI Aayog None 40. What is the limitation period for filing a suit for breach of contract? 1 year 2 year 3 year 4 year None 1 out of 4 Great job on taking the INCOC Test! We appreciate your interest in test. Look out for results and future opportunities. Stay Connected !! Your quiz time is about to finish. Few seconds left. Time's upYou cannot switch tabs while taking this quiz!You are not allowed to switch tabs violation has been recorded.you cannot minimize full screen mode!You are not allowed to minimize full screen while taking this quiz, violation has been recorded.Access denied! To begin the quiz, please grant this quiz access to your camera.Time is Up!Time is Up!
Welcome to your International Navodaya Chamber of Commerce (INCOC) Platform ! Subject: Jurisprudence, Interpretation, and General Laws (ICSI). Total Number of Question: 40 Time: 41 Minutes Please check your email after completion of test for result. All the best... Name Phone No Email State 1. Which section of the IPC defines "Murder"? Section 299 Section 302 Section 304 Section 307 None 2. The term "Mens Rea" means: Guilty mind Guilty act Criminal negligence Dishonest intention None 3. Which law governs bail provisions in India? Indian Penal Code Code of Criminal Procedure Evidence Act Limitation Act None 4. Which of the following is a non-bailable offence? Theft Cheating Murder Public Nuisance None 5. What is the punishment for defamation under IPC? 3 months 6 months 1 Year 2 Year None 6. The Limitation Act, 1963 prescribes a limitation period of how many years for recovery of immovable property? 3 years 6 years 12 years 20 years None 7. Which of the following is NOT an intellectual property right (IPR)? Copyright Trademark Right to Privacy Patent None 8. Which Act governs arbitration proceedings in India? Arbitration Act, 1940 Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 Evidence Act, 1872 Contract Act, 1872 None 9. Under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, the National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC) deals with cases where the claim exceeds: ₹50 lakh ₹1 crore ₹5 crore ₹10 crore None 10. Which of the following is NOT a school of Jurisprudence? Natural Law School Analytical School Social Contract School Scientific School None 11. Who is considered the founder of the Analytical School of Jurisprudence? John Austin Jeremy Bentham H.L.A. Hart Roscoe Pound None 12. Which of the following theories believes that law is derived from social needs? Natural Law Theory Historical School Sociological School Analytical School None 13. Which branch of law deals with disputes between individuals and organizations? Criminal Law Constitutional Law Civil Law International Law None 14. Which of the following is an example of procedural law? Indian Penal Code Contract Act Code of Criminal Procedure Companies Act None 15. Which of the following Articles deals with the "Right to Equality"? Article 12 Article 14 Article 16 Article 21 None 16. Which of the following is NOT a fundamental right under the Indian Constitution? Right to Freedom of Speech Right to Property Right to Equality Right to Religion None 17. The power of judicial review in India is derived from which Article? Article 13 Article 19 Article 32 Article 226 None 18. Which of the following Articles grants special status to Jammu & Kashmir (before its revocation)? Article 350 Article 360 Article 370 Article 380 None 19. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by: The Prime Minister The President The Members of Lok Sabha The Chief Justice of India None 20. A contract is void if: It is made with free consent It involves unlawful consideration It is made by competent parties It is enforceable by law None 21. Which of the following is NOT an essential element of a valid contract? Free consent Lawful object Consideration Written agreement None 22. A minor's agreement is: Void Voidable Valid Illegal None 23. A company incorporated under Section 8 of the Companies Act, 2013 is formed for: Profit-making Charitable purposes Trading activities None of the above None 24. Who appoints the first directors of a company? Shareholders Board of Directors Promoters Registrar of Companies None 25. Which of the following is NOT an essential element of a crime? Actus Reus Mens Rea Intention Motive None 26. Which section of IPC deals with "Culpable Homicide not amounting to Murder"? Section 299 Section 302 Section 304A Section 307 None 27. Which of the following is a bailable offence? Theft Murder Rape Dacoity None 28. Under the CrPC, a police officer can arrest a person without a warrant in: Cognizable offences Non-cognizable offences Civil offences None of the above None 29. The maximum period of police custody under CrPC is: 24 hours 48 hours 7 days 15 days None 30. Which law regulates cyber crimes in India? Indian Penal Code Information Technology Act, 2000 Copyright Act, 1957 Companies Act, 2013 None 31. The "Doctrine of Constructive Notice" applies to: Partnership Firms Companies Trusts All of the above None 32. The Limitation Act, 1963 applies to: Criminal cases only Civil cases only Both Civil and Criminal cases None of the above None 33. The Competition Act, 2002 is enforced by: SEBI RBI Competition Commission of India (CCI) NCLT None 34. Which of the following Acts deals with environmental protection in India? Forest Act, 1927 Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 Environment Protection Act, 1986 Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 None 35. Which of the following statements about "Public Interest Litigation (PIL)" is correct? Only the victim can file a PIL PIL can be filed by any public-spirited person PIL can be filed only in the Supreme Court PIL is not recognized under Indian law None 36. What is the tenure of the Chief Justice of India? 5 years 6 years Until the age of 65 Until the age of 70 None 37. Which of the following writs is issued to prevent a lower court from exceeding its jurisdiction? Habeas Corpus Mandamus Prohibition Certiorari None 38. Under which Article of the Constitution can the President proclaim a Financial Emergency? Article 352 Article 356 Article 360 Article 365 None 39. Which Act regulates the collection and processing of personal data in India? Right to Information Act, 2005 Information Technology Act, 2000 Personal Data Protection Act, 2019 (Proposed) Indian Penal Code, 1860 None 40. Which type of law deals with offences and punishments? Civil Law Procedural Law Criminal Law Administrative Law None 1 out of 4 Great job on taking the INCOC Test! We appreciate your interest in test. Look out for results and future opportunities. Stay Connected !! Your quiz time is about to finish. Few seconds left. Time's upYou cannot switch tabs while taking this quiz!You are not allowed to switch tabs violation has been recorded.you cannot minimize full screen mode!You are not allowed to minimize full screen while taking this quiz, violation has been recorded.Access denied! To begin the quiz, please grant this quiz access to your camera.Time is Up!Time is Up!
Welcome to your International Navodaya Chamber of Commerce (INCOC) Platform ! Subject: Jurisprudence, Interpretation, and General Laws (ICSI). Total Number of Question: 40 Time: 41 Minutes Please check your email after completion of test for result. All the best... Name Phone No Email State 1. Which of the following is NOT a type of legal person? Corporation Idol or temple Human being State None 2. "Audi Alteram Partem" means: Let the buyer beware No one can be a judge in his own case Hear the other side A person cannot transfer better title than he possesses None 3. Which of the following is a secondary source of law? Legislation Judicial Precedents Customs Books of authority None 4. The Mischief Rule of interpretation was laid down in which case? Heydon’s Case Rylands v. Fletcher Donoghue v. Stevenson Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co. None 5. What is the primary objective of interpretation of statutes? To make new laws To find the intention of the legislature To repeal old laws To ensure judicial supremacy None 6. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental Rights? Part II Part III Part IV Part V None 7. Under Article 368, which type of majority is required to amend Fundamental Rights? Simple majority Absolute majority Special majority Special majority with state ratification None 8. Which Article of the Constitution provides for the protection of life and personal liberty? Article 14 Article 19 Article 21 Article 25 None 9. The term "Secular" was added to the Preamble of the Constitution by which amendment? 24th Amendment 42nd Amendment 44th Amendment 52nd Amendment None 10. Which Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the allocation of powers between the Union and the States? Seventh Schedule Eighth Schedule Ninth Schedule Tenth Schedule None 11. Which section of the Indian Contract Act defines "Contract"? Section 2(a) Section 2(b) Section 2(h) Section 10 None 12. Which of the following agreements is void under the Indian Contract Act? Agreement with a minor Agreement for a lawful object Agreement with free consent Agreement supported by consideration None 13. Under the Companies Act, 2013, which form of company must have at least 7 members? Private company Public company One Person Company Small company None 14. Under the Companies Act, 2013, the maximum number of directors a private company can have without special resolution is: 10 12 15 20 None 15. Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) is applicable to companies with a net profit of at least: ₹5 crore ₹10 crore ₹50 crore ₹100 crore None 16. The Indian Penal Code (IPC) came into force in which year? 1857 1860 1862 1872 None 17. Which of the following is an example of a bailable offence? Murder Rape Cheating Dowry death None 18. What is the punishment for voluntarily causing grievous hurt under Section 325 of IPC? 3 years 5 years 7 years 10 years None 19. Which of the following contracts is NOT specifically enforceable under the Specific Relief Act, 1963? A contract to sell immovable property A contract for personal service A contract to construct a building A contract for the supply of goods None 20. Under the Limitation Act, 1963, the limitation period for filing a suit for breach of contract is: 1 year 3 years 5 years 7 years None 21. The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 provides protection to: Consumers only Traders only Manufacturers only Both consumers and manufacturers None 22. Which of the following is NOT an objective of the Right to Information Act, 2005? Promote transparency Encourage secrecy in government work Make government accountable Empower citizens None 23. Which law regulates environmental protection in India? The Environment Protection Act, 1986 The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 The Forest Conservation Act, 1980 The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 None 24. The Factories Act, 1948 applies to premises where at least how many workers are employed with the use of power? 5 10 15 20 None 25. Which Act provides legal recognition to electronic contracts in India? The Information Technology Act, 2000 The Indian Contract Act, 1872 The Digital Signature Act, 2002 The Cybersecurity Act, 2015 None 26. The term "Stare Decisis" means: Let the buyer beware Let the decision stand Justice delayed is justice denied No one can transfer what they do not have None 27. Which of the following is NOT a source of law? Legislation Customs Executive Orders Fictional Stories None 28. The doctrine of "Res Judicata" means: The thing speaks for itself A matter already judged cannot be litigated again No person shall be condemned unheard No one can transfer a better title than he himself has None 29. Which legal maxim means "Justice should not only be done but should also be seen to be done"? Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea Nemo debet esse judex in propria causa Fiat Justitia Ruat Caelum Audi Alteram Partem None 30. "Ignorantia Juris Non Excusat" means: Ignorance of law is no excuse Justice should be done No one can be a judge in his own case Every person is innocent until proven guilty None 31. Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Constitution"? Jawaharlal Nehru Dr. B.R. Ambedkar Sardar Patel Rajendra Prasad None 32. The Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution by which amendment? 40th Amendment 42nd Amendment 44th Amendment 52nd Amendment None 33. Which of the following is NOT a Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSP)? Equal pay for equal work Right to free legal aid Freedom of Speech Protection of monuments and historical sites None 34. Which Article provides for the "Right to Constitutional Remedies"? Article 19 Article 21 Article 32 Article 44 None 35. The President of India can issue ordinances under which Article? Article 123 Article 124 Article 356 Article 368 None 36. A contract without consideration is void, except in cases provided under: Section 10 of the Indian Contract Act Section 11 of the Indian Contract Act Section 25 of the Indian Contract Act Section 28 of the Indian Contract Act None 37. Which of the following is NOT an essential element of a valid contract? Offer and Acceptance Lawful Consideration Free Consent Written Form None 38. A Private Company must have a minimum of how many directors? 1 2 3 4 None 39. Which section of the Companies Act, 2013 deals with the Memorandum of Association? Section 2 Section 4 Section 7 Section 10 None 40. Under the Companies Act, 2013, the minimum paid-up capital required for a private company is: ₹1 Lakh ₹2 Lakh ₹5 Lakh No minimum requirement None 1 out of 4 Great job on taking the INCOC Test! We appreciate your interest in test. Look out for results and future opportunities. Stay Connected !! Your quiz time is about to finish. Few seconds left. Time's upYou cannot switch tabs while taking this quiz!You are not allowed to switch tabs violation has been recorded.you cannot minimize full screen mode!You are not allowed to minimize full screen while taking this quiz, violation has been recorded.Access denied! To begin the quiz, please grant this quiz access to your camera.Time is Up!Time is Up!
Welcome to your International Navodaya Chamber of Commerce (INCOC) Platform ! Subject: Jurisprudence, Interpretation, and General Laws (ICSI). Total Number of Question: 40 Time: 41 Minutes Please check your email after completion of test for result. All the best... Name Phone No Email State 1. Which theory of jurisprudence considers law as a tool for social engineering? Natural Law Theory Sociological Theory Analytical Theory Historical Theory None 2. Who defined law as "the command of the sovereign backed by sanction"? John Austin H.L.A. Hart Salmond Roscoe Pound None 3. Which of the following is an essential feature of a legal right? There must be a subject There must be an object There must be a duty All of the above None 4. Which of the following is NOT a source of law? Constitution Custom Public Opinion Judicial Precedents None 5. The doctrine of "Rule of Law" was developed by whom? A.V. Dicey Bentham Roscoe Pound Salmond None 6. Which rule of interpretation is also known as the "Plain Meaning Rule"? Literal Rule Golden Rule Mischief Rule Purposive Rule None 7. Which of the following is NOT a rule of statutory interpretation? Literal Rule Golden Rule Mischief Rule Doctrine of Consideration None 8. Which doctrine ensures that statutes should be read as a whole to understand their meaning? Doctrine of Harmonious Construction Doctrine of Prospective Overruling Doctrine of Lifting the Corporate Veil Doctrine of Ultra Vires None 9. "Expressio Unius Est Exclusio Alterius" means: The expression of one thing implies the exclusion of another Later laws prevail over earlier laws A general word is interpreted by reference to preceding specific words A word is known by its associates None 10. Which doctrine states that if a part of a statute is unconstitutional, only that part will be declared void? Doctrine of Severability Doctrine of Laches Doctrine of Estoppel Doctrine of Pith and Substance None 11. What is the maximum punishment for an offence under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 (cheque dishonor)? 6 months imprisonment 1-year imprisonment 2 years imprisonment 5 years imprisonment None 12. The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 replaces which previous law? Consumer Protection Act, 1986 Sale of Goods Act, 1930 Indian Contract Act, 1872 Essential Commodities Act, 1955 None 13. The Limitation Act, 1963 prescribes the time limit for: Filing suits Filing appeals Filing applications All of the above None 14. Which of the following contracts is valid under the Indian Contract Act, 1872? A contract with an illegal object A contract with a minor A contract entered by a person of sound mind A contract based on coercion None 15. Which of the following is an "instrument" under the Indian Stamp Act, 1899? A promissory note A bill of exchange A conveyance deed All of the above None 16. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the "Right to Equality"? Article 12 Article 14 Article 19 Article 21 None 17. Which of the following is NOT a fundamental right under the Indian Constitution? Right to Equality Right to Property Right to Freedom of Speech Right to Constitutional Remedies None 18. Which court has the power to issue writs under Article 226 of the Indian Constitution? District Court High Court Supreme Court Tribunal None 19. The principle of "Double Jeopardy" is covered under which Article of the Constitution? Article 14 Article 20(2) Article 21 Article 32 None 20. Which of the following is NOT a writ issued by the courts under the Indian Constitution? Habeas Corpus Mandamus Certiorari Quasi-Judicial None 21. Under criminal law, "mens rea" refers to: Physical act of the crime Guilty mind or intent Punishment prescribed for a crime Compensation payable to the victim None 22. Which law regulates the procedure for arrest and trial in criminal cases? The Indian Penal Code, 1860 The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 The Evidence Act, 1872 The Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 None 23. Which section of the Indian Penal Code deals with punishment for murder? Section 302 Section 304 Section 306 Section 309 None 24. Which of the following is NOT an essential element of a crime? Mens rea (guilty mind) Actus reus (guilty act) Motive Injury to someone None 25. Under the Right to Information Act, 2005, information should be provided within how many days? 10 days 15 days 30 days 60 days None 26. Which of the following is NOT a type of writ under Article 32 of the Indian Constitution? Habeas Corpus Mandamus Prohibition Injunction None 27. Which law governs arbitration proceedings in India? The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 The Companies Act, 2013 The Civil Procedure Code, 1908 The Limitation Act, 1963 None 28. Which of the following is NOT an essential element of a valid contract under the Indian Contract Act, 1872? Free consent Lawful consideration Written agreement Competent parties None 29. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) was established in which year? 1988 1991 1992 1982 None 30. Under the Indian Penal Code, 1860, which section deals with defamation? Section 299 Section 304A Section 499 Section 420 None 31. Which of the following Acts governs copyrights in India? The Copyright Act, 1957 The Patents Act, 1970 The Trade Marks Act, 1999 The Designs Act, 2000 None 32. The term "Ultra Vires" means: Beyond legal power or authority Within legal power or authority Against public policy Against morality None 33. Which of the following is NOT a feature of "Fundamental Duties" under the Indian Constitution? They are enforceable by law They are listed in Part IV-A They were added by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 There are 11 Fundamental Duties None 34. Which section of the Companies Act, 2013 deals with Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR)? Section 125 Section 134 Section 135 Section 149 None 35. Which of the following is NOT a ground for the dissolution of a partnership firm under the Indian Partnership Act, 1932? Mutual agreement Death of a partner Expiry of term of partnership Violation of a contract by one partner None 36. Which of the following rights is a constitutional right but not a fundamental right? Right to Equality Right to Freedom of Speech Right to Life and Personal Liberty Right to Property None 37. The concept of "Natural Justice" includes: Rule against bias Right to be heard Speaking orders All of the above None 38. Which Act regulates the protection of personal data in India? The IT Act, 2000 The Right to Privacy Act, 2019 The Data Protection Bill, 2021 The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 None 39. Which of the following is a legal maxim that means "No one can transfer a better title than he himself has"? Nemo dat quod non habet Audi alteram partem Ignorantia juris non excusat Res ipsa loquitur None 40. Under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, "Hearsay Evidence" is: Admissible in court Not admissible in court Always considered valid Treated as primary evidence None 1 out of 4 Great job on taking the INCOC Test! We appreciate your interest in test. Look out for results and future opportunities. Stay Connected !! Your quiz time is about to finish. Few seconds left. Time's upYou cannot switch tabs while taking this quiz!You are not allowed to switch tabs violation has been recorded.you cannot minimize full screen mode!You are not allowed to minimize full screen while taking this quiz, violation has been recorded.Access denied! To begin the quiz, please grant this quiz access to your camera.Time is Up!Time is Up!
Welcome to your International Navodaya Chamber of Commerce (INCOC) Platform ! Subject: Jurisprudence, Interpretation, and General Laws (ICSI). Total Number of Question: 40 Time: 41 Minutes Please check your email after completion of test for result. All the best... Name Phone No Email State 1. Who is known as the father of modern jurisprudence? Salmond Bentham Austin Blackstone None 2. Which school of law focuses on the "greatest happiness of the greatest number"? Natural Law School Historical School Analytical School Utilitarian School None 3. Which theory of law is associated with H.L.A. Hart? Natural Law Theory Realist Theory Positivist Theory Social Contract Theory None 4. Which element is NOT necessary for a valid legal right? Subject Object Duty Consent None 5. Which type of law deals with private disputes between individuals? Criminal Law Civil Law Constitutional Law Administrative Law None 6. Which school of thought considers law as a command of the sovereign? Historical School Sociological School Analytical School Realist School None 7. What does "Stare Decisis" mean in legal context? The state is supreme Let the decision stand The judge is always right The law is fixed None 8. Which of the following is NOT a source of law? Legislation Customs Judicial Precedents Political Opinion None 9. Which legal maxim means “Ignorance of law is no excuse”? Nemo Debet Esse Judex In Propria Sua Causa Ignorantia Juris Non Excusat Res Ipsa Loquitur Volenti Non Fit Injuria None 10. Which doctrine is used when a law is challenged as unconstitutional? Doctrine of Harmonious Construction Doctrine of Eclipse Doctrine of Ultra Vires Doctrine of Colourable Legislation None 11. The "Mischief Rule" was laid down in which famous case? Heydon’s Case Donoghue v. Stevenson Rylands v. Fletcher Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co. None 12. Which rule of interpretation focuses on the grammatical meaning of words? Literal Rule Golden Rule Mischief Rule Purposive Rule None 13. What does the "Doctrine of Pith and Substance" relate to? Conflict between state and central laws Protection of fundamental rights Judicial independence International treaties None 14. Which interpretation principle states that "specific words will control general words"? Ejusdem Generis Noscitur a Sociis Expressio Unius Est Exclusio Alterius Ratio Decidendi None 15. What does the "Golden Rule" of interpretation suggest? A statute must be interpreted in its plain meaning The court should interpret a statute to avoid absurdity The mischief the statute aims to remedy should be considered The literal meaning should always be applied None 16. Which Act governs the limitation period for filing cases in India? The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 The Limitation Act, 1963 The Registration Act, 1908 The Specific Relief Act, 1963 None 17. What is the minimum number of members required for forming a public company? 1 2 7 10 None 18. Which law governs cybercrimes in India? The Information Technology Act, 2000 The Indian Penal Code, 1860 The Companies Act, 2013 The Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 None 19. Under the RTI Act, 2005, what is the maximum time limit for a Public Information Officer to reply? 10 days 15 days 30 days 60 days None 20. Which of the following is NOT a negotiable instrument under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881? Cheque Promissory Note Share Certificate Bill of Exchange None 21. The Competition Act, 2002, aims to: Regulate foreign trade Promote fair competition in markets Encourage monopolies Control banking operations None 22. Which of the following statements about FIR (First Information Report) is true? It can only be filed by a victim It must be written and signed It is only applicable for civil matters It can be filed only in a court None 23. Which Act governs the registration of movable and immovable properties in India? The Indian Contract Act, 1872 The Transfer of Property Act, 1882 The Registration Act, 1908 The Land Acquisition Act, 1894 None 24. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, provides for divorce under which of the following grounds? Adultery Desertion Cruelty All of the above None 25. Which court has jurisdiction to hear appeals from the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)? High Court Supreme Court National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) Competition Commission of India (CCI) None 26. What is the primary objective of the Specific Relief Act, 1963? To provide compensation for damages To prevent crimes To enforce specific performance of contracts To regulate company affairs None 27. Which of the following is not a valid type of bail under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973? Anticipatory bail Interim bail Regular bail Permanent bail None 28. Which of the following is a requirement for a contract to be valid under the Indian Contract Act, 1872? Legal consideration Free consent Competent parties All of the above None 29. Under which Act is the term ‘Public Interest Litigation (PIL)’ recognized in India? The Civil Procedure Code, 1908 The Indian Constitution The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 The Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 None 30. Under the Companies Act, 2013, which of the following is NOT a type of company? Private Company Public Company Sole Proprietorship One Person Company None 31. Which of the following contracts is NOT enforceable by law? A contract with a minor A contract with lawful consideration A contract signed between two major persons A contract executed in writing None 32. Which Act governs the law of evidence in India? The Indian Penal Code, 1860 The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 The Limitation Act, 1963 The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 None 33. Which of the following is NOT a fundamental duty under the Indian Constitution? To safeguard public property To protect and improve the natural environment To vote in elections To abide by the Constitution None 34. Under the Right to Information Act, 2005, which of the following authorities is exempt from providing information? The Supreme Court The Election Commission The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) The Income Tax Department None 35. Which of the following is NOT a mode of winding up a company under the Companies Act, 2013? Voluntary winding up Compulsory winding up by the Tribunal Striking off by the Registrar Winding up by a special resolution of members only None 36. Which of the following is an essential ingredient of an offence under the Indian Penal Code, 1860? Mens rea (guilty mind) Actus reus (guilty act) Both a and b None of the above None 37. Who is responsible for appointing the Chief Justice of India? Prime Minister of India President of India Speaker of the Lok Sabha Chief Election Commissioner None 38. Which of the following Acts governs the protection of trademarks in India? The Copyright Act, 1957 The Patents Act, 1970 The Trade Marks Act, 1999 The Designs Act, 2000 None 39. Which of the following laws governs partnership firms in India? The Companies Act, 2013 The Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 The Indian Partnership Act, 1932 The Indian Contract Act, 1872 None 40. Which authority is responsible for environmental protection in India? Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Ministry of Home Affairs Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) None 1 out of 4 Great job on taking the INCOC Test! We appreciate your interest in test. Look out for results and future opportunities. Stay Connected !! Your quiz time is about to finish. Few seconds left. Time's upYou cannot switch tabs while taking this quiz!You are not allowed to switch tabs violation has been recorded.you cannot minimize full screen mode!You are not allowed to minimize full screen while taking this quiz, violation has been recorded.Access denied! To begin the quiz, please grant this quiz access to your camera.Time is Up!Time is Up!
